1. Answer the question after reading the following passage:
What is the function of expressions like 'completely, in all respects, altogether, simply, entirely, much, at least to some extent, quite, merely and hardly' in the passage?
2. For the question below, determine the relationship between the pair in the question and then select, from the options the pair having a similar relationship to the first pair.
Mendicant : Impecunious ::
3. In the following question, the first and the last sentences of the passage are in order and numbered S1 and S6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order, as they should appear in the paragraph. Read the passage and find out which of the four combinations correctly forms the sequence of sentences in the passage:
S1: One key prevention is making personnel throughout the organisation aware of the fraud risk management program, including the types of fraud and misconduct they may occur.
P: With this in mind, prevention and deterrence are interrelated concepts.
Q: This awareness should enforce the notion that all of the techniques established in the programme are real and will be enforced.
R: The ongoing communication efforts could provide information on the potential disciplinary, criminal and civil actions that the organization could take against the individual.
S: If effective preventive controls are in place, working and well-known to potential fraud perpetrators, they serve as strong deterrents to those who might otherwise be tempted to commit fraud.
S6: Fear of getting caught is always a strong deterrent. Effective preventive controls are, therefore, strong deterrence controls.
4. Choose the right alternative to make it a meaningful sentence.
Though she is _____ by nature but she does not like that any stranger should _____ on her privacy.
5. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words by choosing the suitable set of answers from the options given below the paragraph.
The disqualification as a (i) _____ of defection does not apply. If the original party of a member (ii) _____ with another party and he either changes his political party as a consequence of the merger. A merger is (iii) _____ to take place only if not less than two-third of the (iv) _____ of the Legislative party (v) _____ to such merger.
6. Which of the following is an ungrammatical sentence?
7. Determine which of these words fits well in all, or the maximum number of sentences.
(i) The bill _____ reduction in electoral expenses.
(ii) The plan _____ ten percent growth in production.
(iii) The budget for the current year _____ more or less double turn-over than that of last year.
(iv) The company _____ a good production due to better prospects of sugarcane production.
8. Choose the word from the following list of words, which is correctly spelt.
9. In the following question, four pairs of words are given. Find the word pair which have dissimilar meaning from the options given below:
10. Read the following job advertisements and answer the questions that follow:
Teaching Position Available: Gandhi International School, one of the top performing schools is looking to recruit passionate and competent teachers. You must be proficient in English. 25 hours per week (flexible times). ₹40 per hour. Plus bonuses.
Receptionist: Sairam Airconditions Company seeks full-time front desk receptionist. You must be: excellent in communication skills; competent in basic computer skills; versatile; polite and approachable! Starting salary: ₹28,000
SAP Graphic Designer Required: A position is available for a part time graphic designer to join Hall Mark International. You must be expert in using various computer programmes. ₹35,000 per year
Which job offers flexible time?
11. Choose the right sequence of words to fill in the blanks marked (A) – (F) in the following sentences to make it a meaningful paragraph.
How quickly things change in the technology (A)! A decade ago, IBM was the awesome and (B) King of the computer trade, universally (C) and respected. A decade ago, two little (D) called Intel and Microsoft were mere blips on the radar screen of the industry, (E) start-ups that had designed to make the chips and software for IBM's new line of personal computers. Though their products soon became industry standards, the two companies remained (F) children of the market leader.
12. In the following question, a sentence is given in which one word is printed in bold type. Your task is to select the word or expression from the alternatives which convey same meaning as the word printed in bold.
His acquittal by the jury surprised those who had thought him guilty.
13. In the following question, four words are given, of which two words are nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words that are similar or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination provided in the options.
A. Possessive B. Dreadful C. Secretive D. Repugnant
14. Choose the correct rearrangement of the following jumbled sentences to make it a meaningful paragraph.
A. Music is perhaps the most popular of all the arts and we find that classical Indian music continues its traditions.
B. Both have deep traditions and changes only happen gradually.
C. For example, concerts are usually by a vocalist or by a solo musician playing an instrument, with a minimum of percussionists.
D. Indian culture is rich in the arts – literature, music, dance, theatre, fine arts and, in modern India, cinema and television as well.
E. The two main types of music in India are the North Indian Hindustani and the South Indian Karnatic music.
15. Match the words in column 'A' with their meanings in column 'B'. Choose the right answer from the options given below:
Column 'A'
(i) Sanguinary (ii) Punctilious (iii) Dogmatic (iv) Reprehensible
Column 'B'
a. Careful b. Impeccable c. Murderous d. Pontifical e. Very bad
16. Choose the incorrectly spelt word from the following set of words:
17. Match the following definitions with their one-word substitutes.
A. A place in a large institution for the care of those who are ill
B. A line of descent traced continuously from an ancestor
C. The art of effective or persuasive speaking or writing
D. A person who draws or produces maps
i. Cartographer ii. Infirmary iii. Genealogy iv. Rhetoric
18. Choose the right matching of the synonyms to the four words given below:
(i) Arbiter (ii) Blithe (iii) Flail (iv) Zeal
(A) Unconcerned (B) Thrash (C) Controller (D) Fervour
19. In the following question, four words are given, of which two words are nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words that are similar or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination provided in the options.
A. Shambles B. Flexible C. Periodic D. Organised
20. Pick out the most effective pair of words from the given options to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The Prison guards degraded themselves with their _____ and _____ treatment of the prisoners.
21. Which of the following is in ascending order?
22. In a joint business A, B and C invested capitals in the ratio 5 : 6 : 8. If the ratio of the shares in their profit is 4 : 3 : 12, then the ratio of their periods of investments is
23. A person left a city P to city Q in a car at 8.00 a.m. He travelled at a speed of 90 km/hr for 3 hours. After that the speed was reduced to 80 km/hr. If the distance between the cities is 510 kms., at what time did he reach city Q?
24. The average weight of A, B and C is 65 kg. If the person D joins them then the average of weights of those four persons becomes 70 kg. The average weight of B, C and D is 75 kg. Then the weight of A is (in kgs)
25. A man observes the top of a pole of height 15 m with elevation angle 30°. The height of the man is 1 m. The distance between the man and the pole in meters is
26. A clock was started at 12.00 noon. When the time is 4.30 p.m., the hour hand has turned through the degrees
27. A closest approximation to the product 0.3333 × 0.25 × 0.4999 × 0.125 × 24 from the following is
28. (1/(√9-√8)) - (1/(√8-√7)) + (1/(√7-√6)) - (1/(√6-√5)) + (1/(√5-√4)) =
29. The least number which when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves remainders 14, 19, 29 and 34 respectively is
30. If ₹2420 are divided among A, B, C so that A : B = 5 : 4, B : C = 9 : 10, then C gets
31. Among 1100 boys and 700 girls who have appeared for an examination, 42% of the boys and 30% of the girls passed the examination. The failed percentage of the total is
32. The number of primes between 10 and 50 that remain primes when their digits are reversed is
33. In the decimal expansion of 1/7000 the digit in the 7000th decimal place is
34. A manufacturer undertakes to supply 2000 pieces of a particular component at the rate of ₹25 per piece. According to his estimate, even if 5% of the supply fail to pass the quality test, then he will make a profit of 25%. However, as it turned out, 50% of the supplied components were rejected. The loss to the manufacturer is
35. A certain sum P amounts to ₹29,400 in two years and to ₹34,300 in three years on compound interest. Then the sum P is (in rupees)
36. A and B are at points P and Q respectively. The destinations of A and B are Q and P respectively. Both of them started at the same time in the opposite directions on the same route. After some time they met each other at the point R. A and B take respectively 4 hours and 9 hours to reach their destination from R. If the speed of A is 48 kmph then the speed of B (in kmph) is
37. Shekhar started a business investing ₹25,000 in the year 1999. After one year in 2000, he invested an additional amount of ₹10,000 and Rajeev joined him with an amount of ₹35,000. After another year in 2001, Shekhar again invested another additional amount of ₹10,000 and Jatin joined them with an amount of ₹35,000. Rajeev's share in the profit of ₹1,50,000 earned at the end of 3 years from the start of the business in 1999 is
38. Three persons A, B and C have started a business with a total investment of ₹5 lakhs. In this A invested ₹40,000 more than B, while B's investment is ₹50,000 more than that of C. If the share of B in the year-end profit is ₹25,500, then the share (in rupees) of A in the profit is
39. The ratio of number of employees in the technical section and the management section of a company is 7 : 2. The average salaries of employees in the technical section and the management section are ₹25,000 and ₹47,500 respectively. The average salary of employees of these two sections together is (in rupees)
40. Three persons A, B and C respectively take 30 seconds, 45 seconds and 60 seconds to make one round around a track. All of them start at the same point P on the track. Then match the number of rounds made by the persons in List-I as given in List-II when they meet again at P.
List-I
(i) A
(ii) B
(iii) C
List-II
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2
41. The average salary of all the workers in a factory is ₹15,000. The average salary of 12 technicians is ₹18,000 and the average salary of the rest is ₹12,000. Then, the total number of workers in the factory is
42. Ramu earns in July thrice as much as in each of the other months. The ratio of his earnings in July to the annual earnings is:
43. From a town, 10% of population is migrating for various reasons every year. If the population at the end of three years will be from now 96228, then the present population of the town (in lakhs) is
44. Match the following questions in List-I with the corresponding answers in List-II:
List-I
(i) What percent of 50 is 2?
(ii) What percent of 1/3 is 1/2?
(iii) What percent of 7 is 84?
(iv) What percent of 6.5 litres is 130 ml?
List-II
(A) 4%
(B) 1200%
(C) 2%
(D) 150%
45. A sum of ₹2,600 is divided amongst P, Q, R, S such that P's share/Q's share = Q's share/R's share = R's share/S's share = 2/3. Then P's share is
46. Natural rubber is polymer of
(a) Ethene (b) Isoprene (c) Acetylene
47. Which of the following are poor conductors of heat?
(a) Pure water (b) Iron (c) Air (d) Steel
48. 'Acid rain' is caused by the presence of oxides of X and Y in air. X and Y are respectively
49. The solutions having basic character from the following are:
i. Lemon juice
ii. Washing soda solution
iii. Vinegar
iv. Milk of magnesia
v. Coffee
50. Pick up the wrong statement of the following:
51. Pick out the wrong statement in the following
52. Match the following:
List-I (Physical Quantity)
a. Surface tension
b. Impulse
c. Viscosity
d. Pressure
List-II (Unit)
i. Poise
ii. Pascal
iii. Newton/m
iv. Newton-sec.
53. An observer looks at a tree of height 15 m. with a telescope of magnifying power 10. To him the tree appears
54. Match the following:
List-I
a. Dalton
b. Newton
c. Faraday
d. Einstein
List-II
i. Laws of motion
ii. Atomic theory
iii. Theory of relativity
iv. Laws of electromagnetic induction
55. Assertion (A): If a body moving in a circular path has constant speed, then there is no force acting on it.
Reason (R): The direction of the velocity vector of a body moving in a circular path is changing.
56. Match the following:
List-I
a. Electric charge
b. Electric field
c. Electric potential
d. Electric capacity
List-II
i. Farad
ii. Coulomb
iii. Newton/coulomb
iv. Volt
57. Match the following:
List-I
A. Litmus (Dye)
B. Agar-agar (Jelly)
C. LSD (Narcotics)
D. Turpentine (Solvent)
List-II
I. Conifers
II. Lichens
III. Algae
IV. Fungi
58. Match the following:
List-I
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Vitamins
List-II
i. Orange
ii. Sunflower
iii. Soya
iv. Ragi
59. Which of the following represents homogenous scientific group of animals?
60. Which statement is correct with reference to the role of UV radiation in water purification?
61. The practice of growing different types of crops in the same field in sequential seasons is called as 'Crop rotation'. One of the following aspect is NOT correct with crop rotation.
62. Ecological pyramid shows the number, energy or biomass at each trophic level. Generally ecological pyramids are upright. However, one of the following pyramid is 'inverted'. Identify.
63. Which of the combinations represent human blood?
64. Read the following statements and choose the correct combination:
A. Typhoid is caused by bacteria
B. Common cold is caused by virus
C. Malaria is caused by bacteria
D. AIDS is caused by a virus
65. Read the following statements:
(a) Leaves appear green in colour because they do not absorb green light but reflect it.
(b) Development of forests in areas where previously forests existed is known as 'Afforestation'.
(c) Carbon tetrachloride is an ozone depleting substance.
The correct option is:
66. Quinine, the drug used for malaria treatment is obtained from this plant
67. Read the following statements:
(a) Sudden and heritable changes in plants or animals are called as 'mutations'.
(b) Amla fruit is rich source of Vitamin 'C'.
(c) Alexander Fleming discovered Penicillin (antibiotic).
The correct option is:
68. Which one of the following is used in fireworks?
69. Study the following and pick up the wrong statement:
70. Match the following:
List-I
i. Ore of Al (Aluminium)
ii. Ore of Fe (Iron)
iii. Ore of Cu (Copper)
iv. Ore of Zn (Zinc)
List-II
a. Magnetite
b. Bauxite
c. Philosopher's wool
d. Malachite
71. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Pandith Ravishanker
(b) Bismillah Khan
(c) Pandit Shivakumar Sharma
(d) Amjad Ali Khan
List-II
i Sarod
ii Samthoor
iii Shehanai
iv Sitar
72. The Nagara, The Dravida and the Vesare are
73. Assertion (A):- The Gandhara school of art is also known as the Indo-Greek school.
Reason (R):- The Gandhara school of art was highly influenced by the Greeco-Roman traditions.
74. Which text describes "a daughter has been as a source of misery" and "only son can be saviour of the family"?
75. Many earliest Buddhist sources mentioned about six Mahanagaras of North India. They are....
76. Arrange the following composition of texts chronologically:
(a) Bana's 'Harshacharitra'
(b) Hemachandra's 'Kumarapalacharitra'
(c) Chand Bardai's 'Prithvirajraso'
(d) Bilhan's 'Vikramankadevacharitra'
77. The Sailendra Rulers of Sri Vijaya Empire established two monasteries in India. Where were they located?
i. Bodh Gaya
ii. Nalanda
iii. Nagapattnam
iv. Saranath
78. Which pair is not correctly matched?
(Gupta Rulers) — (Their Queens)
79. Assertion (A):- The Cholas established a strong overseas empire in South East Asia to spread Indian Culture and heritage.
Reason (R):- The Chola kings were passionate about Indian Culture, religion and heritage.
80. Match the following:
(Kingdoms)
(a) Pandyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cholas
(d) Cheras
(Capitals)
i Uraiyur
ii Kanchipuram
iii Kuruvur
iv Madurai
81. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Kabir
(b) Raidas
(c) Sena
(d) Pipa
List-II
i Cobbler
ii Rajput
iii Weaver
iv Barber
82. Match the following:
Texts
(a) Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi
(b) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
(c) Futuh-al-Salatin
(d) Tarikh-i-Mubarak Shahi
Writers
i Isami
ii Ziauddin Barani
iii Minhaj-us-Siraj
iv Ahmed Sihrindi
83. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
84. Assertion (A):- In some places Artisans and craftsmen participated in the revolt of 1857.
Reason (R):- The British Economic policy destroyed Indian Village Industries and Handicrafts.
85. Assertion (A):- The Mughal Empire started to disintegrate faster after Nadir Shah and Ahmed Shah Abdali's invasions.
Reason (R):- The British East India Company treated the later Mughal emperors with great contempt.
86. Arrange the following wars chronologically:
(a) First Anglo Mysore War
(b) Third Carnatic War
(c) First Anglo-Maratha War
(d) First Anglo-Sikh War
87. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
88. The popular folk Dance of Maharastra is known as
89. Arrange the following Political Associations chronologically according to its inception:
(a) Madras Native Association
(b) Poona Sarvajanika Sabha
(c) All Assam Ahom Association
(d) Indian Association
90. For whom Tilak acknowledged as his Political Guru?
91. Assertion (A): In southern hemisphere, westerlies are stronger with very high velocity of winds than in the northern hemisphere.
Reason (R): In southern hemisphere, there is vast expanse of ocean and therefore westerlies attain terrific speed.
92. Assertion (A): El-NINO phenomena is associated with Peruvian current.
Reason (R): Peruvian current is a cold current.
93. Examine the following statements:
A. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographical region, which is biologically diverse.
B. They have high concentration of endemic species.
C. Western ghats in India is a biodiversity hotspot.
94. Assertion (A): North-east and north-west Atlantic ocean is one of the major fishing grounds of the world.
Reason (R): The warm water of Gulf stream and the cold Labrador current meet near Newfoundland.
95. Assertion (A): Coral bleaching refers to whitening of coral reefs.
Reason (R): Great Barrier Reef near Australia is the largest coral reef formation.
96. Examine the following statements:
A. Anil Sant is the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India.
B. The 'demographic dividend' term was first coined by David Bloom.
Choose the correct answer:
97. Indicators of economic development include:
A. Real Gross Domestic Product
B. Real Per Capita Income
C. Population Explosion
D. Human Development Index
E. More dependence on labour intensive techniques
98. Examine the following statements:
A. Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao was the first person to estimate national income in India before independence.
B. Soon after independence, the central government appointed the 'National Income Committee' to estimate national income in India.
C. Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao was appointed as the chairman of the committee.
99. Examine the following statements about demonetisation in India:
A. ₹500 and ₹1,000 notes were demonetised by the Government of India in 2016.
B. The Central Government announced the demonetisation move on the evening of November 18, 2016.
C. Declaring the currency notes as not legal tender indicates the demonetisation of those currency notes.
100. Examine the following pairs:
Index — Developed by
A. Physical Quality of Life Index
B. Gender Inequality Index
C. Human Development Index
D. Multi-dimensional Poverty Index
101. Examine the following statements about the resolutions of the meeting of the 'Monetary Policy Committee' of RBI held during June 4-6, 2018:
A. The repo rate was increased by 25 basis points to 6.25%.
B. The reverse repo rate was increased to 6.25%.
C. The bank rate was fixed at 6.50%.
102. Match the following:
Scheme/Yojana
A. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
C. National Rural Health Mission
D. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
Launched on
i 9th May, 2015
ii 12th April, 2005
iii 28th August, 2014
iv 8th April, 2015
103. T-Hub is India's largest incubator for start-ups and a unique public-private partnership between:
A. Government of Telangana
B. Government of India
C. IIIT-Hyderabad
D. NALSAR
E. Indian School of Business (ISB)
104. Examine the following statements:
A. The subject of the prevention of food adulteration is in the 'central list' of Indian Constitution.
B. The 'Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954' came into force on 28th September, 1954 in India.
Choose the correct answer:
105. Which of the following are included in 'abiotic environment'?
A. Wind B. Water C. Animals D. Plants E. Soil
106. Which one of the following organisations is proposed, in the last week of June 2018, to be established by the government of India for the improvement of academic standards and the quality of higher education by repealing the University Grants Commission?
107. Examine the following statements about Telangana and India on the basis of data provided by 2011 Census and Socio Economic Outlook 2018:
A. The percentage of urban population to total population in 2011 was more in Telangana than in India.
B. The percentage of decadal population growth rate during 2001-2011 was also more in Telangana when compared to India.
C. The sex ratio of population in 2011 was more in Telangana than in India.
D. The literacy rate of population in 2011 in India was more when compared to Telangana.
E. The density of population in 2011 in India was less than that of Telangana.
108. In retaliation against US announcement imposing tariffs on steel and aluminium items in March 2018, India notified higher tariffs on items imported from the US which include:
A. Almonds, apples, walnuts
B. Phosphoric acid, boric acid
C. 800 CC (or more) motor-cycles
D. Some grades of iron and steel
109. Arrange the names of the following Speakers of Lok Sabha in a chronological order of the office they held:
a. K.S. Hegde b. Rabi Ray c. Balram Jakhar d. Shivaraj Patil e. P.A. Sangma
110. Examine the following statements with regard to office of Speaker of Lok Sabha:
A. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was Speaker of the Lok Sabha twice.
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha always comes from the ruling party.
C. K.S. Hegde was succeeded by Balram Jakhar as the Speaker.
D. The Protem Speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha was Jyotiriditya Scindia.
111. Which among the following are guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A. Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B. Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose a property anywhere in the country
D. Freedom to practice any trade or profession
112. Examine the following statements with regard to the Constitution of India:
a. Area-wise reservation (371D) prevails over reservation under Article 15(4).
b. The main object of Article 12 is to secure paramountcy of Constitution in regard to Fundamental Rights.
c. Under Article 13(3) paramountcy of the Constitution doesn't extend to non-legislative sources of law.
d. Article 17 has been implemented by Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955.
113. Examine the following statements with regard to Telangana State Panchayati Raj Act, 2018.
a. Roznamcha is a diary in which details of dead people are maintained.
b. The quorum for the Grama Sabha if voters are 3001 to 5000 is 300 members.
c. The eligibility age for office of Sarpanch is 21 years.
d. The number of wards in a village with population exceeding 1500 but not exceeding 3000 is 11 (eleven).
114. The Grand banks and Dogger banks are famous for
115. 'Milpa', a type of cultivation in Mesoamerica is known as
116. Which one among the following is not correct?
117. Which one among the following is not true with regard to joint sitting of the Parliament?
118. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Inter tropical convergence zone
(b) Polar front
(c) Horse latitudes
(d) Doldrums
List-II
i Equatorial calm
ii Sub-tropical calm
iii Convergence of westerlies and polar easterlies
iv Convergence of N.E. & S.E. trades
119. World's deepest oceanic trench is
120. Match the following:
List-I
(a) 'V' shaped valley
(b) 'U' shaped valley
(c) Sink holes
(d) Yardangs
List-II
i Wind erosion
ii Karst topography
iii Glacial erosion
iv River erosion
121. Examine the following statements on 'Smart Cities Mission' of India:
A. The mission was launched on August 15, 2015.
B. The mission aims at strengthening urban infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to citizens.
C. Shillong, the capital city of Meghalaya has been selected as 100th Smart City of India in the third week of June 2018.
D. The total proposed investment in the selected 100 cities under the 'Smart Cities Mission' would be ₹2,05,018 crore.
122. Renowned social activist and founder of Sulabh International, Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak was honoured in June 2018 with an award. Identify relevant statements from the following:
(A) He was awarded 23rd Nikkei Asia Prize of Japan.
(B) The ceremony was held in India.
(C) The ceremony was held in Tokyo.
(D) He was awarded 22nd Nikkei Asia Prize of Japan.
123. Consider the following statements:
(A) China inducted its largest indigenously-built transport aircraft named as Y-20.
(B) Pakistan successfully tested its laser guided missile named Barq.
Choose the correct answer:
124. In June 2018 Kerala initiated 'Water Literacy' campaign to create awareness about the importance of water conservation in the state. What are the correct statements from the following?
(A) 70,000 students are involved.
(B) Every student will campaign for 15 families.
(C) Approximately 10 lakh people will be benefited knowing the importance of water, prevention of water pollution.
(D) It is mandatory in Kerala.
125. Which of the following jurisdictions are enjoyed by the Supreme Court of India?
(A) Original Jurisdictions (B) Advisory Jurisdictions (C) Appellate Jurisdictions
126. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct?
(A) India celebrates its 'National Sports Day' every year on 29th August.
(B) Dhyan Chand was the only hockey player who got Padma Bhushan.
(C) Arjuna Award is given for the best archers.
(D) Dronacharya Award is given for brilliance in sports coaching.
127. Who has written the book "Conflicts of Interest: My journey through India's Green Movement" and who published it?
128. Which country will host the first military exercise of the BIMSTEC group focussing on counter terrorism? When is it scheduled & what is the purpose?
129. In May 2018, RBI put Dena Bank under 'Prompt Corrective Action' (PCA) which focuses on the following aspects:
(A) Cannot sanction fresh loans
(B) Barred from recruiting more staff
(C) Cannot disburse loans already sanctioned
(D) Dena Bank is first lender to face curbs under PCA
130. Indian Government launched 'Gram Swaraj Abhiyan – Special Interventions' an outreach programme. Identify the correct statements from the following:
(A) The outreach programme is to deliver welfare schemes to select villages.
(B) The objective is to see that social harmony reaches to the poor.
(C) Doubling the income of farmers.
(D) It is applicable to every village and it should be implemented immediately.
131. Examine the following statements about Gobar Dhan Yojana:
(A) The scheme was launched on April 30, 2018 in Karnal, Haryana.
(B) The scheme aims to positively impact village cleanliness and generate wealth and energy from cattle and organic waste.
(C) It also aims at creating new rural livelihood opportunities.
132. Examine the following statements:
A. Gujarat Forensic Sciences University (GFSU), Gandhinagar is the first Indian university dedicated to forensic and allied sciences.
B. It was established under public-private partnership.
C. J.M. Vyas is the Director General of the University.
D. The University was established through an Act passed by the Gujarat Legislative Assembly, dated 30th September 2008.
E. However, it became functional from July 2010.
Choose the Incorrect statements:
133. Examine the following statements:
(A) Total number of gold medals won by India in the 2018 Commonwealth Games is 26.
(B) Polish author Olga Tokarczuk awarded 'Man Booker International Prize 2018'.
(C) Total number of medals won by India in 2018 Commonwealth Games is 64.
(D) Pellichupulu won the best Telugu film award under regional category in the 65th National Film Awards.
134. Examine the following statements:
(A) Roger Federer, tennis player, reached the men's world number one ATP ranking in tennis after winning his 98th career singles title in May 2018.
(B) He defeated Rafael Nadal in the Stuttgart open final held in May 2018.
(C) 36 years old (As on May 2018) Federer born at Basel, Switzerland.
135. In February 2018, US Government approved sale of AH-64 E Apache attack helicoptors to India. Identify the correct statements relating this approval:
(A) Total estimated cost is $930 million and the prime contractors for the support sale include Lockheed Martin, Longbow, Boeing etc.
(B) It also includes simulators, communication equipment and has night fighting feature.
(C) The estimated cost is $830 million and the prime contractors are Agustawestland and Aerospatiate.
(D) It will strengthen India's ability to defend its homeland and deter regional threats.
136. Besides Sachin Tendulkar, who are the other Indian cricketers who played more than 500 international matches (test matches, one day and T20 internationals)?
A. Sourav Ganguly B. Rahul Dravid C. Anil Kumble D. M.S. Dhoni E. Virender Sehwag
137. In June 2018, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman inaugurated 16 MW solar PV power plant at the Heavy Vehicle Factory in Chennai. Identify the correct statements on the subject from the following:
(A) The plant was established by Bharat Electronics Ltd, Avadi, Chennai.
(B) It costs ₹105 crores.
(C) It will provide green energy and promote Green India initiative.
(D) It also helps in reduction of sulphur dioxide and improve air quality.
138. A famous person, David Douglas Duncan was passed away in June 2018 in France. Which profession does he belong to and what was his role?
(A) Photography, he changed the role of war photography.
(B) He projected the suffering of soldiers in Korea & Vietnam.
(C) He belonged to the era of World War II.
(D) He died in August, 2018.
139. Who are the richest top three billionaires in the world as per Forbes 2018 list released in March 2018?
(A) Bill Gates (B) Warren Buffett (C) Mark Zuckerberg (D) Jeff Bezos (E) Mukesh Ambani
140. On 14th June 2018 who became the first ever Indian batsman to score a century in the first session of the test matches and joined ranks of whom?
141. Examine the following statements about the 'National Commission for Protection of Child Rights' (NCPCR) of India:
A. It was set up in March 2017 under the 'Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2015'.
B. It is a constitutional body.
C. The chairman of the commission is Stuti Narain Kacker.
D. The child is defined as a person in the age group of 0-18 years.
142. 2018 Padma Vibushan recepients from among the following are:
(A) Gulam Mustafa Khan (B) A. Revati (C) Sri Krishna (D) P. Parameswaran (E) Justice S.M. Sikri (F) Illaiyaraja (G) Fatima Sultana
143. Examine the following statements regarding New Development Bank (NDB):
(A) China holds the maximum number of shares in the bank.
(B) The bank has no African nation as a member.
(C) The headquarter of the bank is located at Shanghai.
144. Examine the following statements:
(A) Norway tops in the Global Democracy Index 2017.
(B) Sri Lanka banned import of non-airbag equipped vehicles from July 1, 2018.
(C) India built the world's largest thermal solar plant.
(D) China sets 2018 GDP target at around 8.5%.
145. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Anjolie Ela Menon was awarded 'Kalidas Samman' for Visual Arts by Madhya Pradesh.
(B) The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was awarded National Intellectual Property (IP) Award 2018.
(C) Best actress award in 65th National Film Fare 2018 was awarded to Deepika Padukone.
(D) Navjot Kaur becomes first Indian woman to win gold at Asian Karate Championship.
146. The time between 7:00 to 7:30 such that the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock are perpendicular to each other is
147. The next term in the series: 3, 6, 18, 90, 630, ______
148. Given that 25th April, 2012 was a Wednesday. Now, match the days of the week given in List-II to the dates of that year given in List-I:
List-I
(i) 29th June
(ii) 15th January
(iii) 11th December
(iv) 25th October
List-II
(a) Sunday
(b) Monday
(c) Tuesday
(d) Wednesday
(e) Thursday
(f) Friday
(g) Saturday
149. Q: What is the average of a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5?
S1: a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5 are consecutive integers.
S2: a5 = 100.
150. Q: Is xy = uv?
S1: (x % of u) = (y % of v)
S2: (y % of u) = (v % of x)
151. Q: How much money is there in the bag which solely contains 50 ps, 1 rupee coins?
S1: Total number of coins is 521.
S2: Twice the number of 50 ps coins exceeds that of 1 rupee coins by 127.
152. Q: For integers 'a' and 'b' is a + b an even integer?
S1: a is even.
S2: b is a multiple of 6.
153. Study the following table which gives the production of two types of vehicles by an automobile company in five years (numbers in thousands):
Year: 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016
Type A: 16.9, 12.6, 9.6, 14.8, 16.1
Type B: 25.4, 18.8, 11.2, 16.2, 18.4
The ratio of number vehicles of type A produced to that of type B in all the five years is
154. Study the following table which gives the production of two types of vehicles by an automobile company in five years (numbers in thousands):
Year: 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016
Type A: 16.9, 12.6, 9.6, 14.8, 16.1
Type B: 25.4, 18.8, 11.2, 16.2, 18.4
The percentage decrease in the production of type A vehicles in the year 2014 to that in 2013 is
155. Study the following table which gives the production of two types of vehicles by an automobile company in five years (numbers in thousands):
Year: 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016
Type A: 16.9, 12.6, 9.6, 14.8, 16.1
Type B: 25.4, 18.8, 11.2, 16.2, 18.4
The total number of vehicles produced by the company in the year 2015 is
156. Study the following table which gives the production of two types of vehicles by an automobile company in five years (numbers in thousands):
Year: 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016
Type A: 16.9, 12.6, 9.6, 14.8, 16.1
Type B: 25.4, 18.8, 11.2, 16.2, 18.4
By what percent the vehicles of type B produced are more than the vehicles of type A in 2014
157. The average weight of three persons P, Q and R is 52 kg. The average weight of P and Q is 45 kg and the average weight of Q and R is 48 kg. Then, the weight of Q is (in kg)
158. A train travelled at an average speed of 100 km/hr, stopping for 2 minutes after every 75 km. The distance travelled by the train is 750 km. The time that the train takes to travel this distance is
159. On 8th February 2018, it was a Thursday. Then, what was the day on 8th February 2017?
160. In a code language BHARAT is written as GZIZSY; and INDIAN as MZRWMR. Then, the code of POLICE in that language is
161. In a code UFBDIFS stands for TEACHER, then the code word for PARENT is
162. 20 : 21 :: _______ : N
163. RED FORT : DELHI :: ROCK GARDEN : _______
164. AXE : WOOD :: SCISSORS : _______
165. DOCTOR : DISEASE :: SHERIFF : _______
166. The missing term in the following picture is:
(Three circles, each with an outer ring of numbers and a missing centre value, following the same pattern:)
Circle 1: outer numbers 12, 8, 6; centre = 24
Circle 2: outer numbers 20, 15, 12; centre = 60
Circle 3: outer numbers 30, 24, 20; centre = ?
167. MGIX, LFHW, KEGV, ________, ICET
168. V 25 I, W 16 G, X 9 E, ________, Z 1 A
169. 7, 19, 37, 61, ________, 127
170. 200, 166 2/3, 142 6/7, ________, 111 1/9
171. Match the following political organisations with the names of the founders:
List-I
(a) Nava Telangana Party
(b) Telangana Sadhana Samithi
(c) Jai Telangana Party
(d) Telangana Nagara Samithi
List-II
i Indra Reddy
ii Nagam Janardhan Reddy
iii T. Devendar Goud
iv Ale Narendra
172. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
173. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) B. S. Narayana Rao directed the film Nimajjanam.
(B) Shyam Benegal was the producer of Nishanth.
(C) Oka Oori Katha cinema was directed by Mrunal Sen.
(D) Maa Bhoomi cinema was directed by B. Narsinga Rao.
174. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Baindla
(b) Budabukkala
(c) Padmasalai
(d) Koyas
List-II
i Jamidika
ii Dhamaruka
iii Sadanasurulu
iv Rela Dance
175. Match the following:
(Temples)
(a) Keshavaneni Temple
(b) Taraka Brahma Temple
(c) Sitaramaswamy Temple
(d) Ramalingeswara Temple
(Places)
i Gangapuram
ii Alampur
iii Dichpalle
iv Nandi Kandi
176. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Ikat
(b) Teez
(c) Paya
(d) Perini
List-II
i A dance form
ii Festival of a tribe
iii Technical knowledge of colour printing on cloth
iv A special dish/soup of Hyderabad
177. Assertion (A): Satavahana society was patriarchal in nature.
Reason (R): Some of the later Satavahana rulers used their mother name before their names.
178. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Nanaghat Inscription
(b) Nasik Inscription
(c) Hathigumpha Inscription
(d) Myakadoni Inscription
List-II
i Pulomayi III
ii Kharavela
iii Naganika
iv Goutami Balasri
179. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
(A) During Satavahana rule agriculture was the main source of the income.
(B) Half of the agriculture produce was collected as land tax.
(C) Early Satavahanas followed Vedic religion.
(D) The later Satavahanas patronized Buddhism.
180. Identify the correct pair:
181. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Motupalli Inscription
(b) Chandupatla Inscription
(c) Nitisara
(d) Andhrabhasha bhushanam
List-II
i Ketana
ii Rudradeva
iii Ganapatideva
iv Puvvula Mummadi
182. Consider the following statements with regard to Kakatiyas and select the correct answer:
(A) Agriculture was the main profession during Kakatiya rule.
(B) Forests cleared and new areas were brought under cultivation.
(C) Land Revenue was collected both in cash and kind.
(D) Irrigation was not given importance.
183. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Vicar-ul-Umra
(b) Kamal Khan
(c) Salar Jung - I
(d) Mahboob Ali Khan
List-II
i Purani Haveli
ii Falaknuma Palace
iii Diwan Devidi
iv King Kothi
184. When did the Nizam government lift the ban on Hyderabad State Congress?
185. Quazi Abdul Ghaffar, who reported the Indian government about the massacre in Hyderabad State after police action, worked with which of the following newspapers?
186. Mahalqa Bai Chanda was a famous court dancer of which Nizam?
187. On which date the "Telangana Sayuda Porata Committee" withdrew its armed struggle?
188. Identify the pair which is not correct:
189. Which one of the statement is not correct regarding Boodhan movement in Telangana?
190. Assertion (A): A gentlemen's agreement was signed between Telangana leaders and Andhra leaders in February 1956 to merge Telangana and Andhra.
Reason (R): Accepting the merger proposals, Andhra Assembly passed a resolution on November 25, 1954 to safeguard the interests of Telangana.
191. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Kollur mines
(b) Hyderabad city
(c) Kancharla Gopanna
(d) Kshetrayya
List-II
i Movva
ii Kohinoor
iii Mir Momin Astrabadi
iv Dasarathi Satakam
192. Arrange them in chronological order:
(A) Ibrahim Qutubsha
(B) Abdulla Qutubsha
(C) Mohammad Qutubsha
(D) Jamsheed
193. Consider the following statements with regard to Qutubshahis and select the correct answer:
(A) According to Tavernier there were twenty thousand prostitutes in Hyderabad city.
(B) Land Revenue collection was auctioned.
(C) The Puranapul was a model for a bridge in London.
(D) Abul Hasan Tanasha granted three villages to Rama temple at Bhadrachalam.
194. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Aghornath Chattopadhyay
(b) Afsar Jung Bahadur
(c) Salar Jung I
(d) Syed Hussain Bilgrami
List-II
i Gloria High School
ii Madrasa-i-Ailiyas
iii Asafia High School
iv Madrasa-i-Aizza
195. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
196. Identify the following statements which is not correct?
197. Match the following officials and their duties in Nizam administration:
List-I
(a) Deshmukhs
(b) Sarbastadars
(c) Sadr-us-Sudur
(d) Quazi-e-Subah
List-II
i Revenue Contractor
ii Revenue Collector
iii Civil and Criminal Administration
iv Eccliastical Department
198. Match the following persons with the places of their martyrdom:
List-I
(a) Yadi Reddy
(b) Sri Kantha Chari
(c) Yadaiah
(d) Ishan Reddy
List-II
i Shastri Bhavan, New Delhi
ii Ambedkar Statue, L.B. Nagar
iii O.U. Campus
iv N.C.C. Gate
199. On which date Telangana Praja Samithi decided to change the scope of its organisation from non-political to political body?
200. Match the following authors with the books they wrote:
List-I
(a) Allam Narayana
(b) Ghanta Chakrapani
(c) N. Gopi
(d) P. Lokeshwar
List-II
i Telangana Jaitra Yatra
ii Pranahita
iii Salam Hyderabad
iv Thangeti Poolu