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1. TS Police Constable Prelims - 2015
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1. Choose the right matching of one word substitutes with their description.
(i) Congestion
(ii) Collision
(iii) Bottleneck
(iv) Breakdown
(A) An accident in which two vehicles hit each other
(B) Situation in which roads are full of traffic
(C) Occasion when a vehicle stops working
(D) Place in a road where the traffic cannot pass
2. Choose the right rearrangement of the following sentences into a meaningful paragraph.
A. They are broken into small pieces called "places".
B. A painter once discovered something possible and valuable about this street.
C. One street goes across itself one or two times.
D. They turn in different directions.
E. In a small part of the city west of Washington Square, the streets have gone wild.
3. Fill in the blanks with right verb forms to make it a meaningful sentence.
If you ______ hard in your school days, you ______ this examination today.
4. Identify the part of the sentence which has an error in the following statements.
Children washed (A)/their hands (B)/after they played (C)/with a new born puppy (D).
5. Choose the correct meaning of the italicized idiomatic expression in the following sentences.
You cannot have your cake and eat it too.
6. Find the correct order of the words to form a sentence.
a - travel
b - I
c - and
d - together
e - Satish
7. To "take a leaf out of someone's book" is to
8. What is the meaning of the word 'Kudos' in 'Kudos to the crumbs of entrance test'?
9. To 'show someone the ropes' is to
10. From the following pairs of words, select the one which is synonymous:
11. Match the left-hand column with the right-hand column with the help of the codes given below:
(i) a person who goes out and gets stories for newspapers
(ii) a person who writes articles in newspapers and magazines
(iii) a newspaper you can buy every day after about 5 p.m.
(iv) a magazine that children read, with cartoon pictures
(v) a programme on TV about animals, birds etc.
(A) A nature programme
(B) A Comic
(C) An evening (news) paper
(D) A journalist
(E) A reporter
12. Replace the underlined phrase by the correct alternative.
They left no stone unturned to trace the culprits.
13. Fill in the blank with a suitable word to make the following sentence a meaningful one.
The festival is a three-day-long celebration that combines ______ feasts as well as ______ fasting.
14. Choose the right rearrangement of the following sentences into a meaningful paragraph.
(A) We have ten percent growth rate in most areas. Our Poverty levels are falling.
(B) For fifty years, we have been a developing nation.
(C) We are among top 5 nations of the world in terms of GDP
(D) My second vision is for India's development.
(E) It is time we see ourselves as a developed nation.
15. ______ uranium is ______ toxic metal. ______ uranium in Australia covers 31% of ______ world's known uranium ore reserves.
16. Choose the right alternative to make it a meaningful sentence.
Tea may be used to ______ Coffee.
17. What is the antonym of the word 'pious' in 'She is a pious woman'.
18. The author names three different ways in which a man may react to sudden danger. What are they?
19. Why does the author feel happy in the recollection of dangers faced and overcome?
20. Select an appropriate title for the passage.
21. The rational number with recurring decimal expansion 0.1̅2̅ is
22. The average of four consecutive numbers A, B, C and D is 35.5. Then, the product of B and C is
23. The smallest positive number which is exactly divisible by 450, 600 and 900 is
24. Two numbers x and y are such that x : y = 2 : 3 and their highest common factor is 900. Then xy =
25. Rs. 8750/- is to be distributed to three persons P, Q and R. Q receives 1/4 of what P and R receive together and P receives 2/5 of what Q and R receive together. Then, P receives the amount (in rupees)
26. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 7. If 8 is subtracted from each number, then the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The product of the numbers is
27. The length of a rectangle is decreased by 10% but the area remains the same. Then, percentage increase in the breadth of the rectangle is
28. The population of a small village increases by 8% annually. If its present population is 23328, then the population 2 years ago was
29. A and B started a business investing Rs. 3.5 lakhs and 6.5 lakhs respectively. After six months, A left the business and C joined B with an investment of Rs. 7.5 lakhs. The share of C (in lakhs of rupees) in the year-end profit of Rs. 2.4 lakhs is
30. Three individuals A, B, C start a company and contribute a total of Rs. 5,20,000/-. A contributes Rs. 40,000/- more than B and B contributes Rs. 60,000/- more than C. If the company earns a profit of Rs. 1,95,000/-, the share of C is (in rupees)
31. The sum of K numbers is 2000 and their average is 50. If 91 is included into the list, then the new average is
32. The average age of a family of 3 members was 29 years six years ago. After that a child was born. Today, the average age of the family is 25 years. The present age of the child is
33. The cost price of a TV set for a shopkeeper is Rs. 22,000/-. The shopkeeper increased its price by 15%. Then he sold the TV set at a discount of 20%. The actual loss for the shopkeeper in percentage is
34. A shopkeeper sold a mobile at a profit of 8% to a second shopkeeper. The second shopkeeper sold it to a third shopkeeper at a profit of 6%. If the third shopkeeper paid Rs. 2862/-, the cost price of the mobile for the first shopkeeper is (in rupees)
35. A sum of Rs. 12,000/- given at simple interest rate of 12% per annum becomes Rs. 16,320/- in T years. The value of T is (in years)
36. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on an amount of Rs. A at 8% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 800/-. Then, the amount A is (in rupees)
37. Mohan can repair an Instrument in 40 hours. Ram can repair the same instrument in 30 hours. Mohan and Ram work together to repair the same instrument for 8 hours. Then, Mohan goes away. The number of hours that Ram takes to complete the work is (in hours)
38. A person A can do a work in 20 days. He works for 5 days and stops doing the work. Then, a second person B completes the remaining work in 9 days. If A and B work together, how long will they take to complete the work?
39. A train 80 meters long is running at 108 km/hr. The time that the train will take to pass a platform of 130 meters long is (in seconds)
40. Two trains of lengths 100 meters and 80 meters are moving in the same direction at speeds of 80 km/hr. and 60 km/hr. respectively. The time taken by the first train to cross the second train is (in seconds)
41. A committee of 6 members is to be formed out of 6 men and 3 women. The number of committees that can be formed in which at least one woman is included is
42. Which examination is to be conducted on Monday?
43. English examination is to be conducted between the examinations
44. When are Mathematics and EVS examinations to be conducted?
45. The ratios of surface areas of 2 cubes are given in List I. In List II, the ratios of their volumes are given. Match them:
List–I
(a) 1 : 16
(b) 1 : 25
(c) 1 : 9
List–II
(i) 1 : 125
(ii) 1 : 27
(iii) 1 : 36
(iv) 1 : 64
46. Match the following
List–I
(a) Radio Broadcasting
(b) Marine and Navigational aids
(c) T.V. Broadcasting
(d) Satellite Communication
List–II
(i) LF Band
(ii) HF Band
(iii) SHF Band
(iv) VHF Band
47. Read the following statements:
(a) The Raman effect deals with scattering of light by the molecules of a medium when they are excited to vibrational energy levels.
(b) A conservation law is a hypothesis and cannot be proved but it can be verified by experiments.
(c) Sir Issac Newton showed that the same laws of motion and gravitation cannot be applied to celestial and terrestrial domains.
The correct answer is
48. Assertion (A): An electrical motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Reason (R): An electrical motor works on the principle of mutual induction.
49. A closed vessel is half filled with water. There is a hole at the top of the vessel and air is pumped out from this hole. Then
(a) The density of the liquid will decrease
(b) The pressure at the surface of the water will decrease
(c) The water level will rise up in the vessel
(d) The force by the water on the bottom of the vessel will decrease
Which of the above statements are correct?
50. When light travels from air to water, which one of the following does not change?
51. The elements which show ferromagnetism at room temperature are
52. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of plexiglass?
53. Match the following
List–I
(A) pH of unpolluted rain water
(B) Teflon
(C) Buna–N
(D) Polystyrene
List–II
(I) Moulded Containers
(II) Hose pipe
(III) 5.6
(IV) Paints
(V) Lubricant
54. Beriberi disease is due to the deficiency of vitamin:
55. The compound used for curing meat and fish is
56. Match the following
List–I
(A) Flavr-Savr tomato
(B) Golden rice
(C) Round up ready soybean
(D) Bt–Cotton
List–II
(I) Insect resistant
(II) Herbicide resistant
(III) Vitamin-A-rich
(IV) Delayed ripening
57. An example of tranquiliser is
58. The enzyme referred to as 'Molecular scissors' is
59. Assertion (A): Water at the foot of a water fall is always at different temperature from that at the top.
Reason (R): The potential energy of water at the top is converted into heat energy during the fall.
60. Assertion (A): The rate of photosynthesis is more in red light than in blue light.
Reason (R): The energy content of red photon is more than blue photon.
61. Match the following. The final image formed by different optical instruments
List-I
(a) Simple Microscope
(b) Terrestrial telescope
(c) Compound Microscope
(d) Astronomical telescope
List-II
(i) virtual, erect and small
(ii) virtual, inverted and small
(iii) virtual and enlarged
(iv) magnified, virtual and inverted
62. Match the following
List-I
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Greenhouse effect
(C) Three mile Island (USA)
(D) Terror of Bengal
(E) Calcium metabolism in birds
List-II
(I) Radioactive wastes
(II) Water hyacinth
(III) High concentration of DDT
(IV) Chlorofluorocarbons
(V) CO2 and methane
63. A man with Antigen 'A' and 'B' without antibodies belongs to which type of blood group?
64. Skin colour in man is an example for
65. Arrange the following blood cells in ascending order of their number per cubic millimeter present in the blood
(A) Basophils
(B) Lymphocytes
(C) Eosinophils
(D) Neutrophils
(E) Monocytes
66. With reference to Noise pollution, what is the threshold limit for sensation of pain in the Ear?
67. Match the following
List–I
(A) Ganga Action plan
(B) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
(C) Environment (Protection) Act
(D) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
List–II
(I) 1986
(II) 1974
(III) 1985
(IV) 1980
(V) 1981
68. Match the following
List–I
(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(C) NO
(D) CO
List–II
(I) Accelerated corrosion of building and monuments
(II) Formation of Necrotic spots on the surface of Leaves
(III) Headache and blurred vision
(IV) Greenhouse effect
69. Read the following statements.
(A) Pyramid of number of forest ecosystem is upright
(B) Primary consumers in food chain are herbivores
(C) In case of a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of number is inverted
(D) Pyramid of energy is always inverted
Choose the correct statements
70. Read the following statements
(A) In stratosphere Cl atoms are released from CFC molecules by the action of U.V. rays
(B) U.V.—A rays damage DNA and induce mutations
(C) U.V.—B rays cause ageing of skin and damage skin cells
(D) U.V.—C rays cause inflammation of cornea called Snow blindness
Correct statements are
71. Match the following
List-I
(a) Mruchakatika
(b) Mudraraksasa
(c) Amarakosa
(d) Brihat Samhita
List-II
(i) Vishakadatta
(ii) Sudraka
(iii) Varahamihara
(iv) Amarasihma
72. Assertion (A): Pulakeshin-II defeated Harshavardhana.
Reason (R): He wanted to expand his empire in North-India.
73. Which of the following persons were allowed to become member of Buddhist Sangha?
(A) Female above fifteen years
(B) Person in the service of King
(C) Persons free from leprosy
(D) Persons in debts
74. Identify the correct pair
75. Match the following
List-I
(a) Adichanallur
(b) Harappa
(c) Arikamedu
(d) Bhimbetka
List-II
(I) Rock Art
(II) Roman Trade
(III) Megalithic
(IV) Chalcolithic
76. What was the Agrahara?
77. Assertion (A): Samudragupta has been shown playing Veena on some gold coins.
Reason (R): He was an expert in Music.
78. Match the following
List-I
(a) Paramaras
(b) Solankis
(c) Chandellas
(d) Kalachuirs
List-II
(I) Jayasihma Siddaraja
(II) Boja
(III) Gangayadeva
(IV) Yashovarman
79. Arrange the following administrative units of the Chola period in the descending order:
(A) Valanadus
(B) Nadus
(C) Mandalams
(D) Kurrams
80. Assertion (A): The British India Government could not abolish the untouchability.
Reason (R): It was afraid of arousing the hostility of orthodox sections of Indian society.
81. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
82. Match the following
List-I
(a) Gulbadan Begum
(b) Abul Fazl
(c) Nizamuddin Ahmad
(d) Dara Shikoh
List-II
(I) Sakinat-ul-Auliya
(II) Humayun Nama
(III) Tabaqat-i-Akbari
(IV) Ain-i-Akbar
83. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
84. On what ground, Lord Dalhousie annexed the State of Oudh in 1856?
85. Assertion (A): Annie Besant organised the Home Rule movement against the British Rule
Reason (R): She wanted to bring all sections of the Indians into one fold
86. Who opened a widow home at Pune and married a widow in 1893?
87. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
88. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
89. The first English Evening Daily Newspaper from Madras was
90. Match the following
List-I
(a) History of India
(b) History of Medieval India
(c) History of Modern India
(d) History of South India
List-II
(i) K.A. Nilkantha Sastry
(ii) Bipan Chandra
(iii) Romila Thaper
(iv) Satish Chandra
91. Read the following statements:
(a) The concentration of Nitrogen gas is highest in our environment
(b) Madhya Pradesh is the top producer of pulses
(c) Lok tak lake is in Meghalaya
The correct answer is:
92. Which one of the following statement is correct?
93. Match the following
List-I
(a) Aravali Hills
(b) Highest Peak of Nilgiris
(c) Mahendragiri Hills
(d) Western Ghats
List-II
(i) Eastern Ghats
(ii) Kondesh Hills
(iii) Dodda Betta
(iv) Malwa plateau
94. Match the following:
Assertion (A): The population of India has been increasing since 1991 and reached approximately to 125 crores by the year 2011
Reason (R): There has been a sharp decline in death rate due to improvement in health care delivery in India since 1991
95. Match the following:
List-I
(a) Siachen glacier
(b) Bundi hills
(c) Highest point of Satpura hills
(d) Shivalik Range
List-II
(I) Malwa plateau
(II) Mishmi Hills
(III) Karakoram Range
(IV) Mahadeo Hills
96. Read the following statements
(a) In Arunachal Pradesh, the Siwalik range of hills are called Mishimi hills.
(b) Minicoy islands are located in the Arabian Sea.
(c) Conifer wood is used as raw material to manufacture paper.
The correct answer is
97. The Golden Quadrilateral National Highway network connects the following cities:
98. Read the following statements:
(a) First State to offer 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions is Bihar
(b) The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste members in Lok Sabha is 84
(c) The number of seats reserved for scheduled tribe members in Lok Sabha is 41
The correct answer is
99. Match the following
List–I
(a) National Commission for Backward Classes
(b) Delimitation Commission
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(d) National Commission for Women
List–II
(I) Justice Kuldip Singh
(II) Justice V. Eswaraiah
(III) Dr. Rameshwar Oraon
(IV) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
100. Consider the following statements:
(a) The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the President of India
(b) Grama Sabha is a constitutional body
(c) Separation of executive from judiciary is a Directive Principle of State Policy
Which of the statements given above are correct?
101. Assertion (A): Washing away of the top most layer of the soil cover by running water and wind is called soil erosion.
Reason (R): Alluvial soils are fertile and suitable for cultivation of all crops.
102. Assertion (A): Money bill cannot be returned by the President to the Parliament
Reason (R): Money bill is presented in the Lok Sabha with the permission of the President
103. The formation of Council of Ministers Starts with
104. Match the following:
List–I
(a) First Finance Commission Chairman
(b) First Chief Election Commissioner
(c) First Chief Justice of India
(d) First Chairman of Planning Commission of India
List–II
(i) H.J. Kania
(ii) Jawaharlal Nehru
(iii) K.C. Neogy
(iv) Sukumar Sen
105. Consider the following statements
(a) The first State to levy pollution cess is Delhi
(b) Development expenditure of Union Government includes defence expenditure
(c) Excise duty is the tax levied on the production of goods
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
106. Assertion (A): Rise in the rate of economic growth due to rising share of working age people in the population is called 'demographic dividend'
Reason (R): Jobless Economic growth leads to social unrest
107. Assertion (A): In general, citizens in a federal country have dual citizenship. Though India is a federal country, Indian citizens have single citizenship.
Reason (R): India has been following the policy of single citizenship with a view to safeguard national integrity by curbing disruptive forces.
108. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
109. Match the following
List–I
(a) Sarvodaya Plan, 1950
(b) Bombay Plan, 1944
(c) People's Plan, 1944
(d) Gandhian Plan, 1944
List–II
(i) Industrialists
(ii) Shrimannarayan Agarwal
(iii) Jayaprakash Narayan
(iv) M.N. Roy
110. Match the following
List-I
(a) Social progress index
(b) Gross national happiness index
(c) Human development index
(d) Physical quality of life index
List-II
(i) Per capita GDP
(ii) Infant mortality rate
(iii) Basic human needs
(iv) Spiritual and cultural aspects
111. Read the following statements
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat have equal number of seats in Rajya Sabha
(b) Rajasthan and Odisha have equal number of seats in Lok Sabha
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is appointed by the Speaker
The correct answer is
112. Who among the following participated in the Republic Day parade, 2016?
113. Which among the following pairs are correct?
Book – Author
(a) The Imam and the Indian – Amitav Ghosh
(b) The Shadow Lines – Chetan Bhagat
(c) Two Lives – Vikram Seth
(d) War Talk – Amitabh Bhattacharya
114. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
115. Who among the following headed the Constitutional Bench that invalidated NJAC Act?
116. Who among the following are nominated members of Rajya Sabha?
117. Read the following statements
(A) Speaker appoints the leader of Opposition
(B) Speaker nominates two members to Lok Sabha
(C) Speaker submits his resignation to President
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
118. Match the following
Union Ministers (Feb. 2016) – Portfolios
(a) Arun Jaitley
(b) Anantha Kumar
(c) Chaudhary Birendra Singh
(d) Thawar Chand Gehlot
(i) Panchayati Raj
(ii) Social Justice and Empowerment
(iii) Information and Broadcasting
(iv) Chemicals and Fertilizers
119. Match the following:
State – Chief Minister
(a) Goa
(b) Nagaland
(c) Mizoram
(d) Uttarakhand
(i) Harish Rawat
(ii) Lal Thanhawla
(iii) Lakshmikant Parsekar
(iv) T.R. Zeliang
120. Who among the following were/are speakers of Lok Sabha?
(A) Somnath Chatterjee, Rabi Ray, Manohar Joshi
(B) P.A. Sangma, Murali Manohar Joshi, Arjun Singh
(C) Smt. Sumitra Mahajan, Smt. Meera Kumar, Shivaraj Patil
(D) Balram Jakhar, Jairam Ramesh, K.S. Hegde
121. Read the following statements
(a) The present Attorney General is Mukul Rohatgi
(b) The Attorney General is appointed by Chief Justice of India
(c) The tenure of office of Attorney General is six years
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
122. Who are the member nations in BRICS 6th Summit?
123. Which among the following is/are correct statements?
(A) The 14th Finance Commission was headed by Dr. Y.V. Reddy
(B) The 14th Finance Commission recommended devolution of 42% of funds to State Governments
(C) Finance Commission is appointed by Union Finance Minister
124. Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation protects peoples' cause.
Reason (R): Higher Courts have the discretion to admit Public Interest Litigations.
125. After which incident, Nirbhaya Act was passed by the Parliament of India?
126. At which city's railway station, the first free public Wi-Fi service was launched by Rail Tel in partnership with Google?
127. India has purchased Pilatus PC-7 trainer aircraft from
128. Which country won 2014 Men's Football World Cup?
129. The largest Parliamentary constituency in terms of number of voters is in
130. Which country won the FIFA Women's World Cup, 2015?
131. Which one of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(A) Sustainable development goals are adopted by United Nations.
(B) Ban-Ki-Moon, Secretary General of UNO is serving second term in the office.
(C) Ban-Ki-Moon alone became UN Secretary General twice.
132. Indians who won the Pulitzer prize are:
133. Which of the following pairs are correct?
Book – Author
(A) Da Vinci Code – Dan Brown
(B) The Low Land – Chetan Bhagat
(C) When God is a Traveller – Arundhati Subramaniam
(D) Speed Post – Taslima Nasreen
134. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct?
(A) National Commission for Backward Classes is a Constitutional body
(B) National Commission for Minorities is a Constitutional body
(C) National Commission for women is a Statutory body
(D) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a Constitutional body
135. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(A) Arab Spring originated in Tunisia
(B) Arab Spring was led by Saudi Arabia
(C) Arab Spring spread to Afghanistan, Iraq and Iran
(D) Arab Spring is a floricultural movement
136. If WALK, TRIM and MAY are coded as 8243, 6517 and 729, then RAILWAY is coded as:
137. If SURESH is coded as TWSGTJ then PRINCE is coded as:
138. If GNBJDX is the code for HOCKEY, then the word coded as BQHBJDS is:
139. In a code POLICE is coded as SROLFH. The code word for STATION in that code is:
140. In the sequence 2, 11, 53, 209, 623, (?), find the correct number which comes in the marked position (?).
141. Fill in the blank given below with a suitable number.
2, 6, 30, ____, 1890, 20790; 6, 7, 15, 42, ____, 231.
142. The suitable numbers that fits in the blank in the sequence 1, 7, 25, 79, ___, 727 and 1, 6, 15, ___, 45, 66, 91 is
143. The suitable number that fits the blank in the sequence 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ___, 57 is:
144. The descending order of their heights is:
145. What does D play?
146. Who plays Volleyball?
147. What does E play?
148. Observe the following figures:
Triangle 1: top-left 3, top-right 7, bottom 9
Triangle 2: top-left 8, top-right 4, bottom 10.5
Triangle 3: top-left 13, top-right 1, bottom 12
Triangle 4: top-left 18, top-right A, bottom B
Then, (A, B) =
149. Observe the following figures carefully. Fill in the blank with appropriate choice.
Triangle 1: top 2, bottom-left 3, bottom-right 4, centre 29
Triangle 2: top 2, bottom-left 1, bottom-right 3, centre 14
Triangle 3: top 1, bottom-left 4, bottom-right 5, centre 42
Triangle 4: top 2, bottom-left 3, bottom-right 4, centre 29
150. Observe the figures given below. Fill the gap with suitable number.
Box 1: –1, 3 / 10, 2
Box 2: 3, 5 / 34, 8
Box 3: 2, 5 / 29, 7
Box 4: –3, –2 / ?, –5
The correct number is
151. If 1st February in a non-leap year is a Sunday, then 31st May is a
152. If 26th January of a leap year is a Sunday then 15th August of that year will be a
153. A meeting of a committee is being held. One member reached the venue 20 minutes before 9.35 A.M. Second member came half an hour later than the first member. The second member was late by 40 minutes. The scheduled time of the meeting was
154. Three workers A, B and C paint a house. We want to find in how many days the work can be completed by A, B and C working together.
Observe the following statements:
(I) A and B can complete the work in 20 days
(II) B and C can complete the work in 16 days
(III) A and C can complete the work in 15 days
Then
155. The number of strict IAS officers who are not tall is
156. The number of strict and tall but not IAS officers is
157. We want to find the heaviest of the four objects P, Q, R, S. Observe the following statements:
I. Q is heavier than P, but lighter than S.
II. R is heavier than Q.
Then
158. Five persons A, B, C, D and E sit around a table such that A is diametrically opposite to E and C, D are on either side of A. If there is only one person D to the right of A, then the order in which they sit is
159. The diameters of two concentric circles are 10 cm and 16 cm respectively. The area of the region between the circles is (in square cm)
160. A contractor sold two houses for Rs. 20,00,000/- each. On one his profit was 20% and on the other his loss was 20%. The gain or loss percentage in the sale was
161. Nanaghat Inscription was issued by
162. Which of the following was the leading port town during Satavahana Period?
163. Identify the wrong pair:
164. Match the following:
(A) Nelakondapally
(B) Kolanupaka
(C) Alampur
(D) Kanheri
(i) Jain Centre
(ii) Buddhist Stupa
(iii) Hindu Temples
(iv) Buddhist Chaitya
165. Assertion (A): Buddhism reached its peak during Satavahana rule.
Reason (R): Satavahana paintings are found in Ajanta caves.
166. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
167. Which dance form originated during the Kakatiya Period?
168. Identify the wrong pair:
169. Sammakka-Sarakka lost their lives fighting against which one of the following rulers?
170. Match the following:
List–I
(A) Thousand Pillar Temple
(B) Rudramadevi
(C) Rudradeva
(D) Jayapa
List–II
(i) Nrityaratnavali
(ii) First sovereign ruler of Kakatiya dynasty
(iii) Nayankara system
(iv) Hanumakonda
171. According to which of the foreign visitors "Practice of Sati was in vogue in Qutub Shahi Period"?
172. Match the following:
List–I
(A) Mohd. Quli
(B) Jamsheed
(C) Ibrahim Qutubshah
(D) Mohd. Qutubshah
List–II
(i) 1612
(ii) 1550
(iii) 1543
(iv) 1518
173. To which tribe Qutubshahis belonged?
174. Mohd. Quli Qutubshah's writings were compiled under the name of
175. Assertion (A): There was all-around economic development in the Qutubshahi kingdom.
Reason (R): The diamond mining yielded good income to the Qutubshahis.
176. The original name of Nizam-ul-mulk was:
177. Assertion (A): Mir Mahabub Ali Khan was a benevolent ruler.
Reason (R): Railways made rapid progress in Hyderabad State during Mir Mahabub Ali Khan's time.
178. In which year Urdu replaced Persian as official language in Hyderabad State?
179. Match the following:
List–I
(A) Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Basha Nilayam
(B) Sri Raja Raja Narendra Andhra Basha Nilayam
(C) Andhra Samvardhini Grandhalayamu
(D) Vignana Chandrika Grandha Mandali
List–II
(i) 1901
(ii) 1904
(iii) 1905
(iv) 1906
180. Match the following:
List–I
(A) Hindu Social Club
(B) Humanitarian League
(C) Adi-Hindu Library
(D) Raitu Granthalayamu
List–II
(i) Rai Bal Mukund
(ii) Raja Murali Manohar
(iii) Ravi Narayan Reddy
(iv) B.S. Venkat Rao
181. Which of the following statement is not correct?
182. Who among the following gave the Jal, Jungle, Jameen slogan?
183. Who introduced 'Halisicca rupee' in Nizam State?
184. Name the Chief Engineer who designed many projects in Hyderabad State in 20th Century?
185. Which one of the following presented Koh-i-noor diamond to Shah-jahan?
186. Identify the Birthplace of Komuram Bheem.
187. Match the following
List–I
(A) Raghunath Rao
(B) Bhargava Commission
(C) Aravamudi Ayyangar Committee
(D) Keshava Ayyangar Committee
List–II
(i) Encounter deaths
(ii) Problems of Jogins
(iii) Investigation of Financial affairs
(iv) Political reforms
188. Match the following:
List–I
(A) Neelagiri Patrika
(B) Rayyat
(C) Janadharma
(D) Golconda Patrika
List–II
(i) Suvavaram Pratapa Reddy
(ii) Shabnavis Narasimha Rao
(iii) Mandumula Narsinga Rao
(iv) M. Srinivasacharya
189. The founder of 'Vishwa Gruha Paricharika Sammelanam':
190. Who was the first President of Telangana Regional Committee?
191. What is the name of the Act meant for safeguarding tribal lands?
192. On which river is the 'Rajoli Banda Diversion Scheme' built?
193. Identify the wrong pair.
194. Who is the Director of the Movie "Jai Bolo Telangana"?
195. Who among the following was not a member of the Srikrishna Committee?
196. Assertion (A): Number of Newspapers were started in Hyderabad State in the first Quarter of 20th Century.
Reason (R): Press played active role in the awakening of the people in Hyderabad State.
197. Identify the correct pair.
198. Match the following:
List–I
(A) Telangana Information Trust
(B) Telangana Students Liberation Organisation
(C) Centre for Dalit Studies
(D) Telangana Pragativedika
List–II
(i) Rapolu Ananda Bhaskar
(ii) Telangana Prabhakar
(iii) K. Manohar Reddy
(iv) Mallepally Laxmaiah
199. Which one of the following political parties was not associated with Telangana Joint Action Committee?
200. Assertion (A): In 1868, Salarjung I ordered that mulkis should be given priority in jobs.
Reason (R): Due to the employment of Non-mulkis discontentment among mulkis.