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6. Fundamental Rights
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1. Consider the following regarding "State" under Article 12:
(I) Government and Parliament of India
(II) All local authorities
(III) Statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL
Which of the above are included?
2. A private body acting as an instrument of the State falls within "State" under which Article?
3. Article 13 expressly provides for which doctrine?
4. Which is included within "law" under Article 13?
(I) Ordinances issued by the President or Governors
(II) Custom or usage having the force of law
(III) A constitutional amendment
5. Which case held a constitutional amendment can be challenged if it violates the basic structure?
6. High Courts can declare a law unconstitutional under which Article?
7. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to:
8. Consider the following pairs:
(I) Equality before law – British origin
(II) Equal protection of laws – American origin
9. "Rule of Law" was propounded by which jurist?
10. Which elements of Dicey's Rule of Law apply to the Indian system?
(I) Absence of arbitrary power
(II) Equality before the law
(III) Constitution as a result of individual rights
11. Presidential and gubernatorial immunity under Article 361 is an exception to which right?
12. A Member of Parliament's immunity for anything said in Parliament is guaranteed under which Article?
13. Article 15 is available to:
14. Which clause of Article 15, added by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951, permits special provisions for SEBC/SC/ST?
15. Which clause of Article 15, added by the 103rd Amendment Act, 2019, provides 10% reservation for EWS?
16. The 27% OBC quota in central higher educational institutions was implemented via which Act?
17. Which are classified as 'creamy layer' among OBCs?
(I) Colonel and above in the Army
(II) Group A officers of All India/Central/State Services
(III) Persons holding agricultural land above a certain limit
18. What was the creamy-layer income ceiling when first introduced in 1993?
19. For EWS eligibility, a residential plot of what size in notified municipalities disqualifies a family?
20. Article 16 is available to:
21. Which clause of Article 16, added by the 77th Amendment Act, 1995, allows reservation in promotion for SCs/STs?
22. Which clause, added by the 81st Amendment Act, 2000, allows unfilled reserved vacancies to be carried forward as a separate class?
23. Residence-based reservation under Article 16(3) currently survives, via Article 371D, for which states?
24. The Mandal Commission was appointed in 1979 under Article 340 by which government?
25. Who chaired the Mandal Commission?
26. How many castes did the Mandal Commission identify as backward?
27. What reservation did the Mandal Commission recommend for OBCs?
28. In which year did the V.P. Singh Government implement 27% OBC reservation?
29. What changes did the Narasimha Rao Government introduce in 1991?
(I) Economic criteria preference within the 27% OBC quota
(II) Additional 10% reservation for other economically backward sections
30. Article 16(4) was examined by the Court in which case?
31. In Indra Sawhney (1992), the Court upheld what percentage OBC reservation?
32. Which conditions did the Court lay down in Indra Sawhney?
(I) Creamy layer excluded from reservation
(II) Reservation confined to initial appointments, not promotions
(III) Total quota not to exceed 50% except in extraordinary situations
33. Existing reservation in promotions could continue only up to which year, per Indra Sawhney?
34. Which committee identified the OBC creamy layer, reporting in 1993?
35. The National Commission for Backward Classes got constitutional status via which Amendment?
36. Which Amendment placed the Tamil Nadu Reservations Act, 1993 (69% reservation) in the Ninth Schedule?
37. Which Amendment added a provision in Article 335 for relaxing SC/ST qualifying standards in promotions?
38. Article 17 abolishes which practice?
39. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 was renamed in 1976 as:
40. Which High Court interpreted Article 17's scope as historical social practice, not the literal term?
41. Which case held Article 17's right is available against private individuals?
42. Article 18 permits titles only of which kind?
43. Which case upheld National Awards as not being 'titles' under Article 18?
44. National Awards were instituted in which year?
45. Padma Awards in a year (excluding posthumous and NRI/foreigner/OCI awards) are capped at:
46. Bharat Ratna awards in a year are capped at:
47. The word "only" in Article 15 signifies that:
48. Article 15's provision on access to shops, wells, and public places applies against:
49. Article 19 guarantees six rights to which category of persons?
50. Originally, Article 19 contained how many rights?
51. The right to acquire, hold and dispose of property under Article 19(1)(f) was deleted by which Amendment?
52. The six rights under Article 19 are protected against:
53. Consider the grounds for restricting freedom of speech under Article 19(2):
(I) Sovereignty and integrity of India
(II) Friendly relations with foreign states
(III) Contempt of court
Which of the above is/are correct?
54. Which ground of restriction under Article 19(2) was added by the 16th Amendment Act, 1963?
55. Which grounds of restriction under Article 19(2) were added by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951?
(I) Friendly relations with foreign states
(II) Public order
(III) Incitement to an offence
Which of the above is/are correct?
56. The right to freedom of assembly under Article 19(1)(b) can be restricted on which grounds?
57. Article 19 does NOT include which right regarding assembly?
58. Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 can a magistrate restrain an assembly likely to cause a disturbance of public tranquillity?
59. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code does an assembly of five or more persons become "unlawful"?
60. The right to form associations, unions or co-operative societies is guaranteed under which Article?
61. The provision for "co-operative societies" under Article 19(1)(c) was added by which Amendment?
62. The Supreme Court held that trade unions do NOT have a guaranteed right to:
63. Freedom of movement under Article 19(1)(d) can be restricted on grounds of:
64. The freedom of movement's internal dimension is protected by Article 19; its external dimension (right to travel abroad) is dealt with by which Article?
65. Freedom of residence and settlement is guaranteed under which Article?
66. Article 19(1)(g), guaranteeing freedom to practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business, can be restricted on grounds of:
67. Which ground of restriction under Article 19(6) was added by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951?
68. In which 2020 case did the Supreme Court hold that freedom to practise trade/profession via the internet is protected under Article 19(1)(g)?
69. Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary punishment to:
70. Consider the following provisions of Article 20:
(I) No ex-post-facto law
(II) No double jeopardy
(III) No self-incrimination
Which of the above is/are correct?
71. The protection against ex-post-facto laws under Article 20 applies to:
72. The protection against double jeopardy under Article 20 is available in proceedings before:
73. The protection against self-incrimination under Article 20 does NOT extend to:
74. Article 21 protects life and personal liberty of which category of persons?
75. In which case did the Supreme Court take a narrow interpretation of Article 21, holding the protection is available only against arbitrary executive action?
76. In which case did the Supreme Court overrule its earlier narrow interpretation and introduce the American expression "due process of law" into Article 21?
77. Consider the following pairs of cases and rights declared under Article 21:
(I) Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation – Right to livelihood
(II) K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India – Right to privacy
(III) Common Cause vs. Union of India – Right to fair trial
Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
78. Article 21A, making elementary education a Fundamental Right, was added by which Amendment?
79. Which 1993 case first recognised a Fundamental Right to primary education under Article 21?
80. Unni Krishnan (1993) overruled which earlier judgement on the fundamental right to professional education?
81. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act and the 86th Amendment Act both came into force with effect from which date?
82. Article 22 grants protection to persons who are:
83. Detention aimed at preventing a person from committing a future offence, without trial, is called:
84. Under the first part of Article 22 (ordinary law), an arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within how many hours, excluding journey time?
85. The safeguards under the first part of Article 22 are NOT available to:
86. Under the second part of Article 22 (preventive detention), detention beyond three months requires sufficient cause reported by which body, consisting of High Court judges?
87. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 reduced the period of detention without an Advisory Board's opinion from three months to how many months? However, this provision has not been brought into force.
88. Which body has exclusive authority to make preventive detention laws for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs, and security of India?
89. Consider the following preventive detention laws:
(I) Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), 1971
(II) National Security Act (NASA), 1980
(III) Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002
Which of the above has/have been repealed?
90. Which preventive detention law was repealed in 1995?
91. The concept of preventive detention as an integral part of the Constitution, as done in India, is:
92. Which colonial-era law provided for preventive detention even during British rule?
93. Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) has been held by the Supreme Court to include which of the following rights?
(I) Right to know about government activities
(II) Right against imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper
(III) Right to strike
Which of the above is/are correct?
94. The six rights under Article 19, along with their grounds of restriction, are available to which of the following, apart from citizens?
95. The Article 19(1)(f) right to acquire, hold and dispose of property, before its deletion, could be restricted on grounds under Article 19(6). What replaced this ground list after deletion?
96. Article 23 prohibits which of the following?
97. Article 23's right against exploitation is available against:
98. Consider the following as included in "traffic in human beings" under Article 23:
(I) Selling and buying of men, women and children like goods
(II) Devadasis
(III) Bonded labour
Which of the above is/are correct?
99. Which Act was implemented by Parliament to punish acts of traffic in human beings under Article 23?
100. The term "begar" under Article 23 means:
101. Article 23 permits the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, such as military or social service, subject to which condition?
102. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below what age in factories, mines, or hazardous employment?
103. Article 24 does NOT prohibit the employment of children in:
104. In 1996, what fine per child did the Supreme Court direct employers to deposit for violating Article 24?
105. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 renamed the principal 1986 Act as:
106. Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion to:
107. Consider the following implications of Article 25:
(I) Right to propagate includes the right to convert another person to one's own religion
(II) Freedom of conscience is the inner freedom to mould one's relation with God
Which of the above is/are correct?
108. Under Article 25, the State is permitted to:
(I) Regulate secular activity associated with religious practice
(II) Throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes of Hindus
Which of the above is/are correct?
109. Article 25's explanation regarding the wearing and carrying of kirpans relates to the profession of which religion?
110. For the purposes of Article 25, "Hindus" is explained to include which of the following?
111. Article 26 guarantees the freedom to manage religious affairs to:
112. Consider the following rights under Article 26:
(I) Right to establish institutions for religious and charitable purposes
(II) Right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion
(III) Right to own and acquire movable and immovable property
Which of the above is/are correct?
113. Rights under Article 26, unlike those under Article 25, are subject to public order, morality and health but NOT subject to:
114. The Supreme Court laid down conditions for a "religious denomination." Which of the following is NOT one of them?
115. The Supreme Court held that which of the following is/are religious denominations within the Hindu religion?
(I) Ramakrishna Mission
(II) Ananda Marga
(III) Aurobindo Society
Which of the above is/are correct?
116. Article 27 prohibits the State from compelling any person to pay taxes for:
117. Article 27 prohibits only the levy of a:
118. Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in an educational institution:
119. Article 28's prohibition on religious instruction does NOT apply to an educational institution:
120. Consider the following types of educational institutions under Article 28:
(I) Institutions wholly maintained by the State — religious instruction completely prohibited
(II) Institutions recognised by the State — religious instruction permitted on a voluntary basis
(III) Institutions receiving aid from the State — religious instruction completely prohibited
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
121. Under Article 28, whose consent is needed for a minor attending a religious institution to be exempt from religious instruction?
122. Article 29 protects any section of citizens having a distinct language, script or culture, guaranteeing them the right to:
123. The second provision of Article 29 prohibits denial of admission to any State-maintained or State-aided educational institution on grounds only of:
124. Article 29 grants protection to:
125. The Supreme Court held that the right to conserve language under Article 29 includes:
126. Political speeches made for the conservation of the language of a section of citizens do NOT amount to a corrupt practice under which Act?
127. Article 30 grants the right to establish and administer educational institutions of choice to:
128. Which Amendment added the provision under Article 30 that compensation for compulsory acquisition of minority educational institution property shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed?
129. Unlike Article 29, the protection under Article 30 is confined only to:
130. Consider the following types of minority educational institutions:
(I) Institutions seeking both recognition and aid from the State
(II) Institutions seeking only recognition, not aid
(III) Institutions seeking neither recognition nor aid
Which of the above is/are correct?
131. Institutions of which type under Article 30 are free to administer their affairs, subject only to general laws like contract law and tax law?
132. Which 2006 case summarised the principles on establishing and administering minority educational institutions?
133. As per the Malankara Syrian Catholic College case, the right under Article 30 is intended to ensure:
134. Article 32 confers the right to move which court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
135. Who described Article 32 as "an Article without which this Constitution would be a nullity... the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it"?
136. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. This means it:
137. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court has the power to issue directions, orders or writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Parliament can empower which additional body to issue such writs?
138. The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 can be suspended during which event, as per Article 359?
139. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court's jurisdiction for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is:
140. Where relief through the High Court is available under Article 226, the Supreme Court has ruled that an aggrieved party should:
141. Consider the following differences between Article 32 and Article 226:
(I) Article 32 can be invoked only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, while Article 226 can be invoked for Fundamental Rights and any other purpose
(II) The Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction extends throughout India, while a High Court's is generally limited to its territorial jurisdiction
(III) A remedy under Article 226 is itself a Fundamental Right, while Article 32 is discretionary
Which of the above is/are correct?
142. Before 1950, only which High Courts had the power to issue writs?
143. The writ of Habeas Corpus literally means:
144. The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against:
145. The writ of Mandamus literally means:
146. The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against:
147. The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued to enforce:
148. Against whom can the writ of Mandamus NOT be issued?
149. The writ of Prohibition directs:
150. The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against:
151. The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to:
152. Consider the following regarding the distinction between Prohibition and Certiorari:
(I) Prohibition is issued before the final order to stop continuance of proceedings
(II) Certiorari is issued after the final order to quash it
Which of the above is/are correct?
153. Initially, the writ of Certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. The Supreme Court later ruled it can also be issued against:
154. The writ of Quo-Warranto literally means:
155. The writ of Quo-Warranto can be issued only in case of:
156. The writ of Quo-Warranto can be sought by:
157. Consider the following regarding the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court versus a High Court:
(I) The Supreme Court can issue writs only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, while a High Court can also issue writs for any other purpose
(II) The territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for issuing writs is narrower than that of a High Court
Which of the above is/are correct?
158. Article 33 empowers Parliament to restrict or abrogate Fundamental Rights of which category of persons?
159. The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred on:
160. A law made by Parliament under Article 33 can be challenged in court on the ground of contravention of Fundamental Rights.
161. The expression "members of the armed forces" under Article 33 also covers non-combatant employees such as:
162. A parliamentary law under Article 33 can exclude which tribunals from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
163. Article 34 provides for restrictions on Fundamental Rights while which condition is in force in any area?
164. Article 34 empowers Parliament to indemnify a government servant for acts done in connection with:
165. An Act of Indemnity made by Parliament under Article 34 can be challenged in court on the ground of contravention of Fundamental Rights.
166. The term "martial law" is:
167. Consider the following regarding Martial Law versus National Emergency:
(I) Martial law affects only Fundamental Rights, while National Emergency also affects Centre-State relations
(II) Martial law suspends the government and ordinary law courts, while National Emergency continues them
(III) Martial law has specific and detailed provision in the Constitution, while National Emergency is implicit
Which of the above is/are correct?
168. The Supreme Court held that a declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the suspension of which writ?
169. Article 35 vests the power to make laws to give effect to certain specified Fundamental Rights in:
170. Consider the following matters on which only Parliament, and not State Legislatures, can make laws under Article 35:
(I) Prescribing residence as a condition for employment (Article 16)
(II) Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue writs (Article 32)
(III) Restricting Fundamental Rights of armed forces members (Article 33)
Which of the above is/are correct?
171. Article 35 also empowers Parliament exclusively to prescribe punishment for offences declared under which Fundamental Rights?
(I) Untouchability (Article 17)
(II) Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23)
Which of the above is/are correct?
172. Originally, the right to property was dealt with by which two Articles?
173. As a legal right rather than a Fundamental Right, property under Article 300-A:
174. In case of violation of the right to property under Article 300-A, an aggrieved person can move:
175. Consider the following two cases where Part III still guarantees compensation for State acquisition of private property:
(I) Acquisition of property of a minority educational institution (Article 30)
(II) Acquisition of land under personal cultivation within statutory ceiling limits (Article 31A)
Which of the above is/are correct?
176. The provision guaranteeing compensation for acquisition of minority educational institution property was added by which Amendment?
177. Article 31A saves certain categories of laws from being challenged on grounds of contravention of which Fundamental Rights?
178. Article 31A does NOT immunise a state law from judicial review unless it has been:
179. Article 31B saves acts and regulations included in which Schedule from being challenged on grounds of contravention of Fundamental Rights?
180. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that acts in the Ninth Schedule are open to challenge if they violate the basic structure?
181. The Waman Rao case (1980) clarified that acts included in the Ninth Schedule after which date are valid only if they do not damage the basic structure?
182. In the I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court reaffirmed that laws under the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are open to challenge if they violate Fundamental Rights under which Articles?
183. Originally in 1951, the Ninth Schedule contained how many acts and regulations, compared to 282 at present?
184. Article 31C was inserted by which Amendment Act?
185. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court declared which provision of Article 31C unconstitutional?
186. The 42nd Amendment's extension of Article 31C's protection to all Directive Principles was declared unconstitutional in which case?
187. Consider the following criticisms of the Fundamental Rights:
(I) They are stated in a vague, indefinite and ambiguous manner
(II) They make no provision for social and economic rights like right to work
(III) They are permanent and cannot be curtailed even by constitutional amendment
Which of the above is/are correct?
188. Which critic remarked that the chapter on Fundamental Rights should be renamed "Limitations on Fundamental Rights" due to excessive restrictions?
189. Which jurist called the Constitution of India a "paradise for lawyers" due to its complicated language?
190. During a National Emergency, enforcement of Fundamental Rights is suspended except for which two Articles?
191. Critics argue that the judicial process for enforcing Fundamental Rights is too expensive, benefiting mainly:
192. Which provision is criticised for conferring arbitrary powers on the State and negating individual liberty, reflecting that the Constitution deals more with State rights against the individual?
193. Besides Fundamental Rights in Part III, which of the following is a constitutional/legal right located outside Part III?
194. Consider the following rights outside Part III:
(I) Trade, commerce and intercourse throughout India shall be free (Article 301)
(II) Elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage (Article 326)
Which of the above is/are correct?
195. In case of violation of rights outside Part III (like Article 301 or Article 326), the aggrieved person: