Union Territory and Citizenship FAQs

1. Which Article of the Constitution describes India, that is Bharat, as a 'Union of States'?

2. Consider the following statements regarding Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's reasons for preferring the phrase 'Union of States' to 'Federation of States': (I) The Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states. (II) The states have no right to secede from the federation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3. Under Article 1, into how many categories is India's territory classified?

4. Names and territorial extent of states/UTs are given in which Schedule?

5. Special provisions for certain states are contained under which Part of the Constitution?

6. Administration of scheduled and tribal areas is provided for under which two Schedules?

7. Which of the following expressions is wider in scope under the Constitution?

8. Which of the following are directly administered by the Central Government?

9. Besides cession and occupation, through which other mode recognised by international law can a sovereign state acquire foreign territory?

10. Article 2 empowers Parliament to do which of the following?

11. Consider the following statements: (I) Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not already part of the Union of India. (II) Article 3 relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

12. Which of the following is NOT one of the powers conferred on Parliament under Article 3?

13. Before a bill under Article 3, whose prior recommendation is required?

14. The power to form a new state by uniting parts of states/UTs was added by which Amendment Act?

15. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the President is not bound to accept the views of the state legislature on a bill under Article 3?

16. For a union territory, is a reference to the legislature required before Parliament acts under Article 3?

17. India is rightly described as which of the following?

18. Which country, by contrast, is described as an 'indestructible union of indestructible states'?

19. Article 4 declares laws under Articles 2 and 3 are not amendments under which Article?

20. Under Article 4, laws under Articles 2 and 3 can be passed by what kind of majority?

21. The Berubari Union dispute concerned proposed cession of territory from which state to Pakistan?

22. In which year did the Supreme Court give its opinion on the Berubari Union reference?

23. Which of the following correctly reflects the Supreme Court's ruling on Parliament's power under Article 3 in the Berubari Union reference?

24. Which Amendment Act transferred the Berubari territory to Pakistan?

25. In its 1969 ruling, the Court held boundary disputes can be settled through which means?

26. Which Amendment Act gave effect to the India-Bangladesh land boundary agreement?

27. Under the India-Bangladesh land boundary deal, how many enclaves did India transfer to Bangladesh?

28. Under the same deal, how many enclaves did Bangladesh transfer to India?

29. Which of the following states was NOT among the four states whose territorial provisions in the First Schedule were modified by the 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015?

30. The India-Bangladesh boundary agreement demarcated an undemarcated stretch of approximately what length?

31. The India-Bangladesh land boundary runs for approximately what length?

32. The India-East Pakistan land boundary was originally determined as per which award?

33. Disputes from the Radcliffe Award were sought to be resolved through which award?

34. The 1958 agreement between India and Pakistan aimed at settling disputes arising from the Radcliffe Award is known as the:

35. In which year was the Protocol resolving demarcation, adverse possessions and enclave exchange signed?

36. The India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement was originally signed in which year?

37. Consider the following princely states: (I) Hyderabad (II) Kashmir (III) Travancore (IV) Junagarh Which of the above initially refused to join the Indian Union at the time of independence?

38. Out of 552 princely states, how many joined India at the outset?

39. With reference to the integration of princely states with India, consider the following pairs: (I) Hyderabad – Police action (II) Junagarh – Referendum (III) Kashmir – Instrument of Accession Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

40. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 gave princely states how many options for their political future?

41. Which was the solitary territory placed under Part D in the 1950 classification?

42. Who chaired the Linguistic Provinces Commission of 1948?

43. In which month and year was the Dhar Commission appointed?

44. The Dhar Commission recommended reorganisation be based on which factor?

45. With reference to the JVP Committee of 1948, consider the following: (I) Jawaharlal Nehru (II) Vallabhbhai Patel (III) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (IV) S.K. Dhar Which of the above were members of the JVP Committee?

46. The JVP Committee submitted its report in which month and year?

47. What did the JVP Committee conclude regarding language as a basis for reorganisation?

48. Andhra state, the first linguistic state, was created in which year?

49. Andhra state's creation followed agitation and the death of which leader after a hunger strike?

50. Potti Sriramulu's hunger strike lasted how many days?

51. The States Reorganisation Commission (Fazl Ali Commission) was appointed in which month and year?

52. With reference to the States Reorganisation Commission, consider the following pairs: (I) Fazl Ali – Chairman (II) K.M. Panikkar – Member (III) H.N. Kunzru – Member Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

53. The Fazl Ali Commission submitted its report in which year?

54. The Fazl Ali Commission accepted language as the basis but rejected which theory?

55. Consider the following factors identified by the Fazl Ali Commission for reorganisation of states: (I) Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country (II) Linguistic and cultural homogeneity (III) Financial, economic and administrative considerations (IV) Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people Which of the above were identified as relevant factors by the Commission?

56. The Fazl Ali Commission recommended creation of how many states and centrally administered territories?

57. Along with which Amendment Act did the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 abolish the Part A/Part B distinction?

58. The 1956 reorganisation created how many states and UTs with effect from November 1, 1956?

59. Kerala was formed in 1956 by merging Travancore-Cochin with Malabar and which other territory?

60. Which Act divided Bombay into Maharashtra and Gujarat in 1960?

61. Until liberation in 1954, Dadra and Nagar Haveli was under which colonial power?

62. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was made a union territory by which Amendment Act?

63. In 2020, Dadra and Nagar Haveli was merged with which UT?

64. India acquired Goa, Daman and Diu from the Portuguese in 1961 through which means?

65. Goa, Daman and Diu were constituted a union territory by which Amendment Act?

66. Goa was conferred statehood in which year?

67. Consider the following statements about Puducherry: (I) It comprises the former French establishments of Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe and Yanam. (II) The French handed over this territory to India in 1954. (III) It was made a union territory by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1962. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

68. From 1954 to 1962, Puducherry was administered under what status?

69. Nagaland was formed in 1963 by taking the Naga Hills-Tuensang area out of which state?

70. The Naga Hills-Tuensang area was placed under the Governor of Assam in which year?

71. Nagaland became which numbered state of the Indian Union?

72. In 1966, Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana and which union territory?

73. Haryana became which numbered state of the Indian Union?

74. The demand for Punjabi Subha was raised by the Akali Dal under whose leadership?

75. Punjab's 1966 reorganisation was carried out on the recommendation of which Commission?

76. Himachal Pradesh was elevated to full statehood in which year?

77. Himachal Pradesh became which numbered state of the Indian Union?

78. With reference to the political changes in Northeast India in 1972, consider the following pairs: (I) Manipur – 19th state (II) Tripura – 20th state (III) Meghalaya – 21st state Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

79. Alongside statehood to Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya in 1972, which two UTs were carved from Assam?

80. Arunachal Pradesh was originally known by which name before 1972?

81. The 22nd Amendment Act, 1969 created Meghalaya as what kind of entity within Assam?

82. In 1987, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa became which numbered states, respectively?

83. Mizoram was conferred full statehood as a sequel to which agreement?

84. The Mizoram Peace Accord of 1986 was signed between the Centre and which organisation?

85. Arunachal Pradesh had been a UT since which year, before statehood in 1987?

86. Goa was created in 1987 by separating its territory from which union territory?

87. Till 1947, Sikkim was a princely state ruled by whom?

88. After British paramountcy lapsed in 1947, Sikkim assumed which status vis-a-vis India?

89. Which Amendment Act made Sikkim an 'associate state' in 1974?

90. In the 1975 referendum, Sikkim's people voted for which outcome?

91. Which Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state?

92. Sikkim became which numbered state upon attaining statehood in 1975?

93. Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were created as new states in which year?

94. With reference to the states created in 2000, consider the following pairs: (I) Chhattisgarh – carved out of Madhya Pradesh (II) Uttarakhand – carved out of Uttar Pradesh (III) Jharkhand – carved out of Bihar Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

95. Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand became which numbered states, respectively?

96. At its creation in 2000, Uttarakhand was originally named:

97. Telangana came into existence as a separate state in which year?

98. Telangana became which numbered state of the Indian Union?

99. The Andhra State Act, 1953 took Telugu-speaking areas out of which state?

100. Which city was the capital of Andhra state (1953), while its high court was at Guntur?

101. The 1956 merger of Hyderabad's Telugu areas with Andhra state formed which enlarged state?

102. After the 1956 merger creating Andhra Pradesh, the capital was shifted to which city?

103. Which Act bifurcated Andhra Pradesh into residuary Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in 2014?

104. Till 2019, J&K's special status was under which Article of the Constitution?

105. J&K's special status under Article 370 was abolished in 2019 through which instrument?

106. The J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated the state into how many union territories?

107. Ladakh, formed in 2019, comprises which districts of the erstwhile J&K state?

108. Which was the first state renamed after independence, in 1950?

109. Madras was renamed Tamil Nadu with effect from which year?

110. Mysore was renamed Karnataka in which year?

111. The Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands were renamed as which UT in 1973?

112. Which Amendment Act redesignated Delhi as the National Capital Territory in 1992?

113. Pondicherry was renamed Puducherry in which year?

114. Orissa was renamed Odisha in which year?

115. Which Act altered Assam's boundaries by ceding territory to Bhutan?

116. Which Act merged Chandernagore into West Bengal?

117. Which Article deals with formation of new states and alteration of boundaries or names?

118. Which Article, dealing with Sikkim's association, was subsequently repealed?

119. After the 1956 reorganisation, how many states and union territories existed?

120. As of now, how many states and union territories constitute the Indian Union?

121. Aliens in India are classified into which two categories?

122. Enemy aliens are denied protection against arrest and detention under which Article?

123. The right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or birthplace is under which Article?

124. Equality of opportunity in public employment, for citizens only, is under which Article?

125. Consider the following freedoms guaranteed under Article 19, which are available only to citizens and not aliens: (I) Freedom of speech and expression (II) Freedom of assembly and association (III) Freedom of movement, residence and profession Which of the above are correct?

126. Cultural and educational rights, available exclusively to citizens, are provided under which Articles?

127. Which public office is a citizen alone eligible to hold?

128. With reference to eligibility for the office of President, which of the following is correct?

129. The Indian Constitution, though federal, provides for which system of citizenship?

130. Which of the following federal countries has adopted a system of double citizenship, unlike India?

131. In systems of double citizenship such as in the USA, a person owes allegiance to which authorities and enjoys which sets of rights?

132. Which of the following problems is associated with the system of double citizenship?

133. Which country's Constitution, like India's, has introduced single citizenship?

134. Under which Article can Parliament prescribe residence as a condition for certain public employments?

135. Which Act, under Article 16, authorised residential qualifications for non-Gazetted posts, expiring in 1974?

136. Following the lapse of the residence-based public employment provision elsewhere, such a residence requirement continues to apply only in which states, by virtue of Article 371-D?

137. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination against a citizen on certain grounds, but explicitly does NOT prohibit discrimination on which ground, allowing a state to give benefits to its own residents in unrelated matters?

138. The freedom of movement and residence under Article 19 is subjected to restriction for the protection of the interests of which group?

139. Till 2019, which body was empowered to define persons as permanent residents of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir and confer special rights on them?

140. Consider the following special rights that could be conferred on permanent residents of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir: (I) Employment under the state government (II) Acquisition of immovable property in the state (III) Right to scholarships and other forms of state aid Which of the above is/are correct?

141. The special provision for permanent residents of J&K was based on which Article?

142. Article 35-A was inserted into the Constitution by which instrument?

143. Which Part of the Constitution deals with citizenship, Articles 5 to 11?

144. Which of the following best describes the nature of the constitutional provisions on citizenship?

145. Persons became citizens at the Constitution's commencement, that is, on which date?

146. Which Act did Parliament enact for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the Constitution's commencement?

147. A person domiciled in India at the commencement of the Constitution became a citizen if he/she fulfilled which one of the following conditions?

148. A person who migrated to India from Pakistan before July 19, 1948, became a citizen of India if he/she satisfied which condition?

149. What significance does July 19, 1948 hold for migration from Pakistan?

150. A person who migrated to India from Pakistan on or after July 19, 1948, could be registered as a citizen only if resident in India for how long preceding the date of application?

151. A person who migrated to Pakistan from India after March 1, 1947, but later returned to India for resettlement, could become an Indian citizen subject to which condition?

152. The provision concerning persons who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947 and later returned applies to migration occurring in which period?

153. A person of Indian origin residing outside India became a citizen at commencement if registered by whom?

154. Consider the following categories of persons addressed by the constitutional provisions on citizenship at commencement: (I) Persons domiciled in India (II) Persons who migrated from Pakistan (III) Persons of Indian origin residing outside India Which of the above is/are covered under Articles 5 to 11?

155. As per the Constitution, a person shall not be a citizen of India, or deemed to be one, under which circumstance?

156. According to the Constitution, a citizen of India shall continue to be such a citizen, subject to what?

157. Which authority has the power to legislate on citizenship acquisition and termination?

158. Which Article deals with citizenship rights of persons who migrated from Pakistan?

159. Which Article deals with citizenship rights of migrants to Pakistan who later returned?

160. Which Article deals with citizenship rights of persons of Indian origin residing outside India?

161. Which Article bars citizenship for persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship?

162. Which Article provides for continuance of citizenship rights?

163. Which Article empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship by law?

164. The Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribes how many ways of acquiring citizenship?

165. Consider the following modes of acquiring citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955: (I) Birth (II) Descent (III) Registration (IV) Naturalisation (V) Incorporation of territory Which of the above are correct?

166. A person born in India on or after January 26, 1950 but before July 1, 1987 is a citizen of India by birth under which condition?

167. A person born in India on or after July 1, 1987 but before December 3, 2004 is considered a citizen of India by birth under which condition?

168. For persons born in India on or after December 3, 2004, citizenship by birth requires which of the following?

169. Which of the following categories of children CANNOT acquire Indian citizenship by birth, even if born in India?

170. A person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950 but before December 10, 1992 is a citizen of India by descent if which parent was a citizen of India at the time of birth?

171. A person born outside India on or after December 10, 1992 is considered a citizen of India by descent under which condition?

172. From December 3, 2004 onwards, a person born outside India shall not be a citizen of India by descent unless the birth is registered at an Indian consulate within what period?

173. An application for registration of the birth of a minor child by descent at an Indian consulate must be accompanied by an undertaking regarding what?

174. A minor who is a citizen of India by descent and also a citizen of another country shall cease to be a citizen of India if he/she does not renounce the foreign citizenship within what period of attaining full age?

175. Under registration, a person of Indian origin resident in India is eligible after how many years' residence?

176. A spouse of an Indian citizen is eligible for citizenship by registration after how many years' residence?

177. A person of full age and capacity who, or whose parent, was earlier a citizen of independent India is eligible for citizenship by registration if ordinarily resident in India for how long immediately before the application?

178. A person of full age and capacity who has been registered as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder for five years is eligible for citizenship by registration if ordinarily resident in India for how long before the application?

179. A person is deemed of Indian origin if born in undivided India or territory that became part of India after which date?

180. Before being registered as citizens of India under any of the registration categories, applicants must fulfil which common requirement?

181. Minor children of persons who are already citizens of India are eligible for citizenship under which mode?

182. Under naturalisation, an applicant must not be a subject or citizen of a country where citizens of India are prevented from becoming subjects/citizens by naturalisation. This is an example of which principle applied in the qualifications?

183. An applicant for naturalisation who is already a citizen of another country must undertake to do what, in the event their application is accepted?

184. An applicant for naturalisation must have resided in India or been in the service of a Government in India throughout which period immediately preceding the date of application?

185. Under the general rule (before the 2019 amendment), an applicant for naturalisation had to show residence or government service in India amounting, in the aggregate, to not less than how many years during the fourteen years preceding the twelve-month period?

186. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, reduced the aggregate residence/service period for naturalisation to not less than five years for persons belonging to which communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, or Pakistan?

187. An applicant for naturalisation must have adequate knowledge of a language in which Schedule?

188. The Eighth Schedule presently recognises how many languages, against fourteen originally?

189. The Government of India may waive all or any of the naturalisation conditions in the case of a person who has rendered distinguished service in which of the following fields?

190. If a foreign territory becomes part of India, the Government of India specifies the persons who shall be citizens of India through which mode of acquisition?

191. When Pondicherry became part of India, which order specified its citizens under the Citizenship Act?

192. Special provisions for persons covered by the Assam Accord were added by which Amendment Act?

193. Under the Assam Accord provisions, persons of Indian origin who came to Assam from Bangladesh before which date, and have resided there since, are deemed citizens of India as from January 1, 1966?

194. Under the Assam Accord provisions, a person of Indian origin who came to Assam from Bangladesh between January 1, 1966 and March 25, 1971, and was later detected as a foreigner, becomes a citizen of India for all purposes from when?

195. During the intervening ten-year period under the Assam Accord provisions, such a registered person has the same rights and obligations as an Indian citizen, except for which right?

196. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 added special citizenship provisions for migrants belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, or Pakistan who entered India on or before which date?

197. Migrants covered under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 were earlier exempted from adverse penal consequences under which two laws?

198. Which of the following is true regarding the applicability of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019's special provisions to certain regions?

199. The Inner Line, exempted from the CAA 2019's special provisions, was notified under which Regulation?

200. In which year did the Central Government first exempt Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, or Pakistan from adverse penal consequences, prior to the CAA 2019?

201. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 came into force on which date?

202. The Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribes how many ways of losing citizenship?

203. Consider the following modes of losing Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955: (I) Renunciation (II) Termination (III) Deprivation Which of the above is/are correct?

204. If a citizen of India makes a declaration renouncing citizenship during a war in which India is engaged, what happens to the registration of that declaration?

205. When a person renounces Indian citizenship, what happens to their minor child's citizenship?

206. Citizenship is lost by termination when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. Under which circumstance does this termination NOT apply?

207. Consider the following grounds for deprivation of citizenship by the Central Government: (I) Citizenship obtained by fraud (II) Disloyalty to the Constitution of India (III) Unlawful trade or communication with the enemy during a war Which of the above is/are valid grounds?

208. Deprivation of citizenship can occur if a citizen, within five years after registration or naturalisation, has been imprisoned in any country for what minimum period?

209. Deprivation of citizenship can occur if a citizen has been ordinarily resident outside India continuously for how many years?

210. Who chaired the High Level Committee on the Indian Diaspora, set up in September 2000?

211. Under which Ministry was the High Level Committee on the Indian Diaspora set up?

212. The High Level Committee on the Indian Diaspora submitted its report in which year?

213. The Committee's report recommended the amendment of the Citizenship Act, 1955 to provide dual citizenship for which category of persons?

214. Which Amendment Act first provided for Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) for PIOs?

215. Which Amendment Act expanded OCI to PIOs of all countries except Pakistan and Bangladesh?

216. Is the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) actually a form of dual citizenship?

217. Which Amendment Act introduced the OCI Cardholder scheme, merging PIO and OCI card schemes?

218. The PIO card scheme was introduced on which date?

219. A citizen of another country who was eligible to become a citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the Constitution is eligible for registration as which of the following?

220. A spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India is eligible for registration as an OCI Cardholder only if the marriage has subsisted for a continuous period of not less than how long immediately before the application?

221. A person whose parent, grandparent, or great-grandparent is or had been a citizen of which countries is specifically barred from registration as an OCI Cardholder?

222. Consider the following rights that an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder is NOT entitled to: (I) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment under Article 16 (II) Eligibility for election as President under Article 58 (III) Eligibility for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court under Article 124 Which of the above is/are correct?

223. Is an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder entitled to be registered as a voter?

224. Can an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder be a member of the House of the People or the Council of States?

225. When an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder ceases to hold that status by renunciation, what happens to the status of their minor child registered as a cardholder?

226. Consider the following grounds for cancellation of registration as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder: (I) Registration obtained by fraud, false representation, or concealment of a material fact (II) Disaffection towards the Constitution of India (III) Unlawful trade or communication with an enemy during a war Which of the above is/are valid grounds?

227. OCI registration can be cancelled for a 2+ year sentence within how many years after registration?

228. Which Amendment Act added violation of the Citizenship Act or other laws as a ground for OCI cancellation?

229. Before cancellation of registration as an OCI Cardholder, what must the Central Government provide, as added by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?

230. Does an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholder require a visa to visit India?

5. Union Territory and Citizenship