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28. Political Process & Elections
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1. Which of the following countries is cited as an example of a two-party system?
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian party system:
(I) India has the largest number of political parties in the world.
(II) Except the BJP and the two communist parties, most other Indian parties do not have a clear-cut ideology.
(III) The practice of political defections in India gained greater currency after the fourth general elections of 1967.
Which of the above is/are correct?
3. Which body registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties based on poll performance?
4. A party that is neither a national party nor a state party, and does not have a symbol reserved for its exclusive use, is classified as a:
5. Under which Order does the Election Commission specify the reservation and allotment of symbols to political parties?
6. Consider the following conditions for recognition as a national party:
(I) Securing six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or legislative assembly, along with winning four Lok Sabha seats.
(II) Winning two per cent of Lok Sabha seats at a general election, with these candidates elected from three states.
(III) Being recognised as a state party in four states.
Which of the above is/are valid conditions for recognition as a national party?
7. A party is recognised as a state party in a state if it wins one Lok Sabha seat for every how many seats (or fraction thereof) allotted to that state, at a general election to the Lok Sabha from that state?
8. A party is recognised as a state party in a state if it secures what percentage of total valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha or legislative assembly of the state, without any additional seat-winning condition?
9. At the time of the First Lok Sabha general elections in 1952, how many national parties existed in the country?
10. Which political party, founded by A.O. Hume, was formed in 1885?
11. Who founded the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) in 1984?
12. Consider the following political parties and their founders:
(I) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) – C.N. Annadurai
(II) Telugu Desam Party (TDP) – N.T. Rama Rao
(III) All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) – M.G. Ramachandran
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
13. The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) was formed in 1980 by which of the following?
14. Which political party, now renamed the Bharat Rashtra Samithi (BRS), was founded by K. Chandra Shekar Rao in 2001?
15. The Nationalist Congress Party (NCP), formed in 1999, was founded jointly by Sharad Pawar, P.A. Sangma and which other leader?
16. Consider the following statements regarding the features of a regional party:
(I) It generally operates within a particular state or specific region, with its electoral base limited to a single region.
(II) It articulates regional interests and identifies itself with a particular cultural, religious, linguistic or ethnic group.
(III) It has a political desire for greater regional autonomy of states in the Indian Union.
Which of the above is/are correct?
17. Regional parties formed by individual leaders on the basis of their charismatic personality, which tend to be short-lived, are classified as:
18. Which of the following regional parties is classified as having been formed by a split in a national party?
19. Consider the following statements regarding the reasons for the rise of regional parties in India:
(I) Reorganisation of states on the basis of language contributed to their emergence.
(II) Centralising tendencies of the Congress party contributed to their emergence.
(III) Self-interest of the deposed Maharajas and dispossessed Zamindars contributed to their emergence.
Which of the above is/are correct?
20. Which of the following is described as a positive role played by regional parties in Indian politics?
21. Consider the following statements regarding the dysfunctions of regional parties:
(I) They have encouraged regionalism, casteism, linguism, communalism and tribalism.
(II) They have indulged in corruption, nepotism and favouritism to promote self-interest.
(III) They have consistently strengthened national integration by prioritising national interests.
Which of the above is/are correct?
22. Which Part of the Constitution contains Articles 324 to 329, dealing with the electoral system in India?
23. Which Article of the Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections?
24. The elections to the Lok Sabha and state assemblies are to be conducted on the basis of adult franchise, entitling every citizen of India who has attained what age to vote?
25. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions on elections:
(I) State legislatures can make provisions relating to elections to state legislatures only on matters not covered by Parliament.
(II) The validity of any law relating to delimitation of constituencies or allotment of seats cannot be questioned in any court.
(III) Since 1966, election petitions are triable exclusively by high courts, with appellate jurisdiction lying with the Supreme Court alone.
Which of the above is/are correct?
26. Which Article empowers the appropriate legislature to establish a tribunal for adjudication of election disputes, and provides for exclusion of court jurisdiction except the Supreme Court's special leave appeal jurisdiction?
27. The Election Commission of India is a three-member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and how many Election Commissioners?
28. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners?
29. Who is authorised to supervise election work in a State/Union Territory, subject to the overall superintendence and control of the Election Commission of India?
30. Which officer is responsible for the conduct of elections in a Parliamentary or assembly constituency?
31. Who appoints the Presiding Officers and Polling Officers for conducting the poll at polling stations, except in the case of Union Territories?
32. Which category of Observers, appointed by the Election Commission, exclusively monitors the election expenditure of contesting candidates?
33. As per the Constitution, there can be no longer than how many months between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the new House?
34. The official election campaign officially ends how many hours before polling closes?
35. Since which year has the Election Commission increasingly used Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) instead of ballot boxes?
36. As per Election Commission guidelines on polling stations, officials try to ensure there is a polling station within how many kilometres of every voter?
37. Results of opinion polls cannot be published during which period, as stipulated by the Election Commission?
38. Elections to the Lok Sabha are carried out using which electoral system?
39. Election petitions, if upheld, are tried by which court, and can lead to the restaging of the election in that constituency?
40. Till now, as of 2026, how many general elections have been held to the Lok Sabha?
41. Which political party won the largest number of Lok Sabha seats in the Seventeenth General Elections (2019)?
42. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the bar to interference by courts in electoral matters?
43. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 was enacted mainly to provide for which of the following?
44. Which Act provides for the actual conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Houses, corrupt practices, and the decision of election disputes?
45. The Delimitation Act, 2002 set up a Delimitation Commission to effect delimitation based on which census?
46. Which Act declares that certain offices of profit under the Government shall not disqualify their holders from being chosen as, or for being, members of Parliament?
47. Which Act regulates matters relating to elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India?
48. Which Rules provide for the preparation and publication of electoral rolls?
49. The Registration of Political Parties (Furnishing of Additional Particulars) Order was issued in which year?
50. Which Constitutional Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for both Lok Sabha and assembly elections?
51. In which year was a provision introduced requiring officers and staff engaged in the preparation of electoral rolls to be deemed on deputation to the Election Commission during their period of such employment?
52. Since which year has the Election Commission issued Electors' Photo Identity Cards (EPICs) to check bogus voting and impersonation of electors?
53. The Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms, whose recommendations were partly implemented in 1996, was appointed by which government?
54. Under the reforms implemented in 1996, a person convicted under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 is disqualified from contesting elections to Parliament and state legislature for how many years?
55. As per the reforms implemented in 1996, if a candidate sponsored by a recognised political party dies before actual polling, the party is given how many days to propose another candidate?
56. As per the 1996 reforms, by-elections must now be held within how many months of the occurrence of a vacancy in a House of Parliament or state legislature?
57. As per the 1996 reforms, the minimum gap between the last date for withdrawal of candidature and the polling date was reduced from 20 days to how many days?
58. In 1997, the number of electors required as proposers and seconders for contesting the Presidential election was increased from 10 to how many?
59. Consider the following changes introduced in 2003 with respect to Rajya Sabha elections:
(I) The domicile/residency requirement for a candidate was removed, requiring only that they be an elector in any parliamentary constituency in the country.
(II) An open ballot system replaced the secret ballot system to curb cross-voting and money power.
(III) The number of proposers required was increased to 50.
Which of the above is/are correct?
60. As per the 2017 budget, the limit for anonymous cash donations by any individual to a political party was lowered from ₹20,000 to how much?
61. The Electoral Bond Scheme, notified in 2018, allowed donations only to registered political parties that had secured not less than what percentage of votes polled in the last general election to the Lok Sabha or State legislative Assembly?
62. In which year did the Central Government amend the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 to allow political parties to receive funds from foreign companies?
63. Consider the following provisions of the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021:
(I) It enabled the linking of electoral roll data with the Aadhaar ecosystem.
(II) It specified four qualifying dates in a calendar year (1st January, 1st April, 1st July, 1st October) for preparation/revision of electoral rolls, instead of just 1st January.
(III) It allowed spouses of service voters to cast their vote in person or through postal ballot, replacing the word 'wife' with 'spouse'.
Which of the above is/are correct?
64. According to the Election Commission, the ballot papers and EVMs are required to carry the photograph of the candidate, along with name and party symbol, for any election held after which date?
65. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) slip remains exposed through a transparent window for how many seconds after a vote is cast?
66. The VVPAT system was first used in a bye-election held in 2013 to which Assembly Constituency?
67. In Lily Thomas vs. Union of India (2013), the Supreme Court held that chargesheeted Members of Parliament and MLAs, on conviction, would be:
68. In the Chief Election Commissioner vs. Jan Chaukidar case (2013), the Supreme Court upheld a Patna High Court order regarding which of the following?
69. Which committee, appointed in 1998 under the chairmanship of a former Home Minister, examined and upheld the case for state funding of elections?
70. The Tarkunde Committee on electoral reforms, which submitted its report in 1975, was appointed in 1974 by whom?
71. The Vohra Committee, constituted in 1993, examined which subject?
72. The scientific study of voting behaviour is known as which branch of political science?
73. Who described voting behaviour as "the behaviour that explicitly reflects voter's choices, preferences, alternatives, ideologies, concerns, agreements, and programmes in respect of various issues"?
74. Which political analyst said "Indian politics is casteist, and caste is politicised"?
75. According to Paul Brass, at the local level in the countryside, by far the most important factor influencing voting behaviour remains:
76. Consider the following statements regarding determinants of voting behaviour in India:
(I) The re-organisation of states in 1956 and later on the basis of language reflects the significance of the language factor.
(II) The rise of parties like DMK in Tamil Nadu and TDP in Andhra Pradesh can be attributed to linguism.
(III) Money can influence voter decisions equally in both normal circumstances and wave elections.
Which of the above is/are correct?
77. According to Paul Brass, a "wave election" is one in which a clear tendency develops among the electorate in a single direction, based on an issue or set of issues that:
78. The dissatisfaction of the electorate with the performance of the ruling party, which is a determinant of voting behaviour, is referred to as:
79. The term 'coalition' is derived from which language?
80. In Latin, the word from which 'coalition' is derived means which of the following?
81. The features of coalition politics were summarised by which scholar?
82. Consider the following statements regarding the features of coalition politics as summarised by J.C. Johari:
(I) A coalition implies the existence of at least two partners.
(II) The keynote of coalition politics is compromise.
(III) Coalition politics is a static, unchanging affair.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
83. Which of the following is advantageous because it provides parties a common platform to woo the electorate through a joint manifesto?
84. In which year did the Congress party first form a coalition-free single-party government after a split within the party?
85. The dominant Congress party was badly defeated in which Lok Sabha election, marking the beginning of the era of coalition governments at the Centre?
86. Who was the Prime Minister of the first coalition government (Janata Party) formed at the Centre after the 1977 elections?
87. With reference to coalition governments at the Centre, consider the following pairs:
(I) National Front (1989–1990) – V.P. Singh
(II) United Front (1996–1997) – H.D. Deve Gowda
(III) BJP-led Coalition (1998–1999) – A.B. Vajpayee
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
88. The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) government under A.B. Vajpayee first came to power for a full term spanning which period?
89. The Vajpayee ministry of 1999, criticised for its unusually large size, was popularly referred to as which of the following?
90. Critics have referred to Prime Ministers in coalition governments, whose leadership is curtailed by the need to consult coalition partners, by which of the following terms?
91. In a coalition government, the Steering Committee or Co-ordination Committee of coalition partners is often described as functioning like which of the following?
92. Which of the following is cited as a merit of coalition government in the Indian context?
93. Which of the following statements regarding the merits and demerits of coalition government is correct?
94. The anti-defection law was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment Act?
95. In which year was the 52nd Amendment Act, which introduced the anti-defection law, enacted?
96. The provisions of the anti-defection law are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?
97. The 52nd Amendment Act made changes in how many Articles of the Constitution to provide for disqualification on grounds of defection?
98. Consider the following statements:
(I) Article 101 relates to vacation of seats in Parliament.
(II) Article 190 relates to vacation of seats in state legislatures.
(III) Article 356 relates to disqualification on grounds of defection.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
99. Which Amendment Act omitted the exception that disqualification on grounds of defection would not apply in case of a split?
100. In which year was the 91st Amendment Act, which altered the Tenth Schedule's split-exception provision, enacted?
101. Under the Tenth Schedule, a member of a House belonging to a political party is disqualified if he or she votes contrary to the party's direction and the act is not condoned by the party within how many days?
102. Under the Tenth Schedule, a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for joining a political party only if he/she does so after how much time from taking the seat in the House?
103. Which of the following statements regarding disqualification under the anti-defection law is/are correct?
(I) An independent member is disqualified if he/she joins any political party after election.
(II) A nominated member may join a political party within six months without inviting disqualification.
(III) A member elected on a party ticket is disqualified if he/she voluntarily gives up membership of that party.
104. Under the Tenth Schedule, a merger of a political party with another is recognised as valid, exempting members from disqualification, only if what proportion of the party's members agree to it?
105. Which of the following exceptions to disqualification on grounds of defection remains valid under the Tenth Schedule even after the 91st Amendment Act?
106. Under the anti-defection law, any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by whom?
107. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court declare unconstitutional the provision that the presiding officer's decision on defection is final and cannot be questioned in any court?
108. In which year was the Kihoto Hollohan case decided?
109. In the Kihoto Hollohan case, the Supreme Court held that the presiding officer's decision under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review on which of the following grounds?
110. Under the Tenth Schedule, rules made by the presiding officer to give effect to its provisions must be placed before the House for how many days?
111. According to the rules made under the Tenth Schedule, the presiding officer can take up a defection case only upon receiving what?
112. Which Prime Minister described the anti-defection law as the 'first step towards cleaning-up public life'?
113. Which of the following is cited as a criticism of the anti-defection law?
114. The criticism that the anti-defection law "banned only retail defections and legalised wholesale defections" refers to which of its features?
115. Which two Speakers of the Lok Sabha have expressed doubts about their own suitability to adjudicate defection cases under the Tenth Schedule?
116. Which body recommended, among others, the omission of the exemption from disqualification in case of splits, leading to the 91st Amendment Act?
117. As per the 91st Amendment Act, the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed what percentage of the total strength of the Lok Sabha?
118. As per the 91st Amendment Act, the Council of Ministers in a state, including the Chief Minister, shall not be less than how many members?
119. The term 'pressure group' originated in which country?
120. Pressure groups are also known by which other name?
121. According to Odegard, the technique by which pressure groups try to place favourably disposed persons in public office is known as which of the following?
122. According to Odegard, the technique by which pressure groups persuade public officers to adopt policies beneficial to their interests is known as which of the following?
123. Consider the following statements regarding Odegard's classification of pressure group techniques:
(I) Electioneering involves placing favourably disposed persons in public office.
(II) Lobbying involves persuading public officers to adopt favourable policies.
(III) Propagandising involves directly capturing political power through elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
124. Which of the following is the central distinguishing feature between pressure groups and political parties?
125. Among the business groups functioning as pressure groups in India, which of the following is correctly matched with its full form?
126. The first trade union in India, the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), was founded in which year?
127. Who was the first President of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)?
128. With reference to trade unions in India as pressure groups, consider the following pairs:
(I) All-India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) – CPI
(II) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) – Congress
(III) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) – BJP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
129. The Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) is associated with which political party?
130. Which of the following is described as the oldest and the largest agrarian pressure group in India?
131. Which of the following is a professional association representing lawyers among the pressure groups in India?
132. With reference to student organisations functioning as pressure groups in India, consider the following pairs:
(I) Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP) – BJP
(II) National Students Union of India (NSUI) – Congress
(III) Students Federation of India (SFI) – CPI
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
133. Which of the following is a religious organisation functioning as a pressure group in India?
134. In Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra, competitive caste politics has traditionally centred around the rivalry between which two groups?
135. Which of the following environmental protection movements is classified as an ideology-based pressure group in India?
136. According to Almond and Powell, anomic pressure groups are characterised by which of the following?
137. Which of the following is classified as an anomic pressure group in India?
138. Who defined national integration as implying "avoidance of divisive movements that would balkanise the nation"?
139. Which scholar described national integration as "cohesion not fusion, unity but not uniformity, reconciliation but not merger"?
140. Regionalism, as an obstacle to national integration, is best defined as which of the following?
141. Which of the following is an example of the "Sons of the soil theory" manifestation of regionalism?
142. Consider the following statements regarding the manifestations of regionalism in India:
(I) Demand for separate statehood, as in Gorkhaland, is a form of regionalism.
(II) Inter-state river-water disputes, such as over the Cauvery, are a manifestation of regionalism.
(III) Communal riots between religious communities are a manifestation of regionalism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
143. The politicisation of religion leading to communalism in India has its roots in British-era Acts that introduced communal representation. Which of the following Acts is associated with this?
144. The disputed structure at Ram Janma Bhoomi in Ayodhya was demolished by kar sevaks on which date?
145. Which of the following political parties is cited as an example of a party formed on the basis of caste?
146. Who observed that reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes represent a vestigial form of the British-era communal electorates, and are "not conducive to national integration"?
147. The first linguistic state to be created out of the then Madras state was formed in which year?
148. States were reorganised on a large scale in 1956 based on the recommendations of which commission?
149. The States Reorganisation Commission (1953–1955) was headed by whom?
150. The Official Languages Act, which made Hindi the Official Language of the Union and triggered anti-Hindi agitations in South India, was enacted in which year?
151. Which state continued to teach only English and Tamil, opposing the implementation of the three-language formula in its educational institutions?
152. In which year was the National Integration Council (NIC) constituted, following the National Integration Conference?
153. Who serves as the Chairman of the National Integration Council (NIC)?
154. As of the details given, how many meetings of the National Integration Council had been held since its inception, with the 16th meeting held on 23-09-2013?
155. The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was set up in which year?
156. The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) functions as an autonomous body under the administrative control of which Ministry?
157. Which Article of the Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, directs the State to promote international peace and security?
158. India's foreign policy principle opposing the exploitation of weaker nations by imperialist powers is known as which of the following?
159. India snapped diplomatic relations with South Africa in 1954 as a protest against which policy?
160. India re-established full diplomatic relations with South Africa in which year, following the end of apartheid?
161. India's policy of non-alignment, adopted during the Cold War, meant India would do which of the following?
162. The principle of Panchsheel was embodied in the Preamble of the Indo-China Treaty concerning which region?
163. The Indo-China Treaty on Tibet, which embodied the Panchsheel principles, was signed in which year?
164. The Panchsheel agreement of 1954 was signed by Jawaharlal Nehru and which Chinese leader?
165. Consider the following statements regarding the five principles of Panchsheel:
(I) Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty.
(II) Non-aggression.
(III) Alliance-based collective security.
Which of the above is/are among the five Panchsheel principles?
166. In which year did India play an active role in the Afro-Asian Conference held at Bandung, Indonesia?
167. Which regional organisation, formed in 1985 with active Indian involvement, promotes cooperation among South Asian nations?
168. With reference to India's role in the formation of regional and international groupings, consider the following pairs:
(I) Group of 77 – 1964
(II) BIMSTEC – 1997
(III) Indian Ocean Rim Association – 1990
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
169. India hosted the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) at New Delhi in which year?
170. India became a member of the United Nations Organisation (UNO) in which year?
171. Who among the following became the first woman to be elected President of the UN General Assembly, representing India, in 1953?
172. India held the initiative of a six-nation summit at New Delhi in 1985 aimed at making concrete proposals on which issue?
173. India has kept its nuclear options open by not signing which two treaties?
174. The Gujral Doctrine, a milestone in India's foreign policy, was propounded in 1996 by I.K. Gujral in his capacity as which of the following?
175. The Gujral Doctrine is based on which underlying principle in India's relations with its smaller South Asian neighbours?
176. Which of the following countries is NOT among the neighbours specifically named under the Gujral Doctrine's first principle of non-reciprocal concessions?
177. India's nuclear doctrine is built upon a posture officially described as which of the following?
178. Under India's nuclear doctrine, retaliatory nuclear attacks can only be authorised by the civilian political leadership through which body?
179. The Political Council of India's Nuclear Command Authority, the sole body authorised to sanction use of nuclear weapons, is chaired by whom?
180. The Executive Council of the Nuclear Command Authority, which provides inputs and executes directives, is chaired by whom?
181. India launched the "Connect Central Asia" Policy in which year?
182. Under the "Connect Central Asia" policy, India has sought to assist in setting up a Central Asian University in which city?
183. India's "Look East Policy" was first initiated in 1992 by which Prime Minister?
184. In which year did the Modi Government rename India's "Look East Policy" as the "Act East Policy"?
185. Under the Act East Policy, the ASEAN-India Agreement on Trade in Service and Investments entered into force for India and how many ASEAN countries from 1 July 2015?